Nursing Elites

1. A 50-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to his back, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of heavy alcohol use. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum amylase and lipase. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Acute cholecystitis
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Acute pancreatitis
• D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's history of heavy alcohol use, severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, nausea, vomiting, and elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are classic signs of acute pancreatitis. Alcohol consumption is a common predisposing factor for pancreatitis, leading to inflammation of the pancreas. The clinical presentation, along with the laboratory findings, strongly support the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis in this patient.

2. A 34-year-old woman presents with intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Celiac disease
• C. Lactose intolerance
• D. Crohn's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea that improve with fasting, along with a history of iron deficiency anemia, are highly suggestive of celiac disease. In celiac disease, gluten ingestion leads to mucosal damage in the small intestine, causing malabsorption of nutrients like iron, leading to anemia. The improvement of symptoms with fasting can be explained by the temporary avoidance of gluten-containing foods. Irritable bowel syndrome typically does not improve with fasting. Lactose intolerance usually presents with symptoms after dairy consumption, not with fasting. Crohn's disease typically presents with more chronic symptoms and is not commonly associated with improvement on fasting.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which assessment finding requires the healthcare provider's immediate action?

• A. Loss of deep tendon reflexes.
• B. Ascending weakness.
• C. New onset of confusion.
• D. Decreased vital capacity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Decreased vital capacity is the most critical assessment finding in a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome as it indicates respiratory compromise. This requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate ventilation and prevent respiratory failure, a common complication of this syndrome. Monitoring and maintaining respiratory function are vital in these clients to prevent complications such as respiratory distress, hypoxia, and respiratory failure. Loss of deep tendon reflexes and ascending weakness are typical manifestations of Guillain-Barré syndrome but do not require immediate action compared to compromised respiratory function. New onset of confusion may be a concern but is not as immediately life-threatening as decreased vital capacity.

4. When assessing a male client who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs), the nurse notes that the infusion was started 30 minutes ago, and 50 ml of blood is left to be infused. The client's vital signs are within normal limits. He reports feeling 'out of breath' but denies any other complaints. What action should the nurse take at this time?

• A. Administer a PRN prescription for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
• B. Start the normal saline attached to the Y-tubing at the same rate.
• C. Decrease the intravenous flow rate of the PRBC transfusion.
• D. Ask the respiratory therapist to administer PRN albuterol (Ventolin).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing symptoms of shortness of breath, which could indicate fluid overload from the PRBC transfusion. By decreasing the intravenous flow rate of the transfusion, the nurse can slow down the rate of blood being infused, potentially alleviating the symptoms of fluid overload and shortness of breath. This intervention can help prevent further complications and promote the client's comfort and safety.

5. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Eat a light breakfast on the day of the procedure.
• B. You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution before the procedure.
• C. Avoid all liquids for 24 hours before the procedure.
• D. You can continue taking your blood thinners until the day of the procedure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client scheduled for a colonoscopy is to drink a bowel preparation solution before the procedure. This solution helps cleanse the colon, ensuring clear visualization during the colonoscopy procedure. Choice A is incorrect because a light breakfast is usually recommended the day before the procedure, not on the day of the colonoscopy. Choice C is incorrect as it is important to stay hydrated and follow specific instructions regarding liquid intake. Choice D is incorrect as blood thinners may need to be adjusted or stopped before the colonoscopy to reduce the risk of bleeding during the procedure.

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