a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd is experiencing respiratory distress which intervention should the nurse implement first
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD experiencing respiratory distress, the priority intervention should be to position the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and reduce the work of breathing. Administering bronchodilators and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions but positioning the client to enhance respiratory function takes precedence in this situation. Obtaining an ABG sample may provide valuable information but is not the initial priority when addressing respiratory distress.

2. A client with Addison's disease is being treated with fludrocortisone (Florinef). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fludrocortisone, such as Florinef, is a mineralocorticoid that promotes sodium retention and potassium excretion, which can lead to hypernatremia. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor for hypernatremia when a client with Addison's disease is being treated with fludrocortisone. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is incorrect because fludrocortisone promotes potassium excretion, leading to hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is incorrect as fludrocortisone promotes sodium retention. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is unrelated to the action of fludrocortisone.

3. A patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which is reflected by changes in the PTT. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the patient's blood is within the desired therapeutic range and prevents complications related to clotting or bleeding. Prothrombin time (PT) primarily assesses the extrinsic pathway and is not as sensitive to heparin therapy. Bleeding time and platelet count are not specific tests for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.

4. A client with a history of chronic alcohol use is admitted with confusion and an unsteady gait. Which deficiency should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Thiamine (Vitamin B1). Chronic alcohol use can lead to thiamine deficiency, which can result in neurological symptoms such as confusion and an unsteady gait. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function and nerve conduction, and its deficiency is common in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) deficiency can also present with neurological symptoms, but in this case, the patient's history of chronic alcohol use points more towards thiamine deficiency. Folic acid deficiency typically presents with symptoms like fatigue and megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone health issues rather than neurological symptoms.

5. A patient with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. What should the nurse do to prepare the patient for the procedure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct preparation for a paracentesis in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites includes having the patient void immediately before the procedure. This is important to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the paracentesis. Positioning for a paracentesis is typically upright or semi-Fowler's, not flat in bed. Administering a full liquid diet or encouraging ambulation for 30 minutes are not directly related to preparing a patient for a paracentesis procedure.

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