Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing.
• C. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
• D. Obtain a stat arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD experiencing respiratory distress, the priority intervention should be to position the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and reduce the work of breathing. Administering bronchodilators and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions but positioning the client to enhance respiratory function takes precedence in this situation. Obtaining an ABG sample may provide valuable information but is not the initial priority when addressing respiratory distress.

2. A client with cirrhosis of the liver is being cared for by the healthcare team. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the client has developed hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Asterixis.
• B. Jaundice.
• C. Ascites.
• D. Splenomegaly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asterixis, also known as flapping tremor, is a characteristic sign of hepatic encephalopathy, a severe complication of liver cirrhosis. Hepatic encephalopathy results from the liver's inability to detoxify substances in the body, leading to neurologic manifestations such as changes in mental status, confusion, and asterixis.

3. The client is receiving intravenous (IV) morphine for pain control. Which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention?

• A. Drowsiness.
• B. Itching.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute indicates severe respiratory depression, a life-threatening side effect of opioid therapy. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring and managing respiratory status are critical in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Drowsiness, itching, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not as immediately life-threatening as severe respiratory depression.

4. The client has acute kidney injury (AKI). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Urine output of 50 ml in the last hour.
• B. Serum potassium of 6.2 mEq/L.
• C. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L in a client with AKI can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, necessitating immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia is a serious complication in AKI as impaired kidney function can result in the accumulation of potassium in the blood, posing a risk of cardiac arrest. Prompt treatment to lower potassium levels is crucial to prevent cardiac complications in this situation.

5. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

• A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
• B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
• C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
• D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods to prevent its absorption, which is why it should be taken with meals. By taking RenaGel with meals, it can effectively bind with phosphorus from food, reducing the amount of phosphorus absorbed by the body, thus helping to manage hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because RenaGel's primary action is to bind with phosphorus in foods, not related to preventing indigestion, promoting stomach emptying, or buffering hydrochloric acid.

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