Nursing Elites

1. A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes is preparing for discharge. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take my insulin shots only when my blood sugar is high
• B. I need to follow a balanced diet and exercise regularly
• C. I should monitor my blood sugar levels regularly
• D. I need to take my medication as prescribed by my doctor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In type 2 diabetes, insulin therapy is typically not the first-line treatment. Patients should follow their prescribed treatment plan, which may or may not include insulin. Taking insulin shots only when blood sugar is high can lead to uncontrolled glucose levels and complications. It is important to adhere to the prescribed medication regimen to manage diabetes effectively.

2. A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 30-year-old woman with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria is highly suggestive of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency and subsequent hyperglycemia. The presence of ketonuria indicates the breakdown of fats for energy due to the lack of insulin. In contrast, type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents with gradual onset and is often associated with insulin resistance rather than absolute insulin deficiency. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria and polydipsia but is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism may present with symptoms like fatigue but does not typically cause hyperglycemia or ketonuria.

3. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Administer the injection in your thigh.
• B. Do not expel the air bubble from the syringe before injection.
• C. Massage the injection site after administration.
• D. Alternate the injection site between the arms.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox) is not to expel the air bubble from the syringe before injection. This ensures the full dose is delivered without affecting the medication's efficacy. Expelling the air bubble may lead to a loss of medication, resulting in suboptimal treatment. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to follow this instruction to receive the intended therapeutic effect of enoxaparin.

4. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Stimulate white blood cell production
• B. Increase platelet count
• C. Promote red blood cell production
• D. Enhance clotting factor production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythropoietin primarily stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, which helps to improve oxygen delivery to tissues. In chronic kidney disease, patients often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production by the kidneys. By administering exogenous erythropoietin, the deficient hormone is replaced, leading to an increase in red blood cell production and subsequently improving the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

5. A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. The cancer involves only the cervix.
• B. The cancer cells closely resemble normal cells.
• C. Further testing is necessary to determine the spread of the cancer.
• D. Determining the original site of the cervical cancer is challenging.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'The cancer involves only the cervix.' In staging, 'Tis' indicates cancer in situ, which means it is localized to the cervix and not invasive at this time. The differentiation of cancer cells is not part of clinical staging. Since the cancer is in situ, its origin is the cervix. Further testing is not required as the cancer has not spread beyond the cervix. Choice B is incorrect as the staging information provided does not relate to the resemblance of cancer cells to normal cells. Choice C is incorrect because further testing is not necessary as the cancer is localized. Choice D is incorrect because the staging information provided clearly indicates the site of origin as the cervix.

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