Nursing Elites

1. A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes is preparing for discharge. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take my insulin shots only when my blood sugar is high
• B. I need to follow a balanced diet and exercise regularly
• C. I should monitor my blood sugar levels regularly
• D. I need to take my medication as prescribed by my doctor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In type 2 diabetes, insulin therapy is typically not the first-line treatment. Patients should follow their prescribed treatment plan, which may or may not include insulin. Taking insulin shots only when blood sugar is high can lead to uncontrolled glucose levels and complications. It is important to adhere to the prescribed medication regimen to manage diabetes effectively.

2. A 35-year-old male patient presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever for the past 48 hours, preceded by new onset jaundice over the past few weeks. He states that he has had diarrhea on and off for several years but never had this investigated. A liver ultrasound is negative for gallstones or evidence of cholecystitis. His lab tests reveal total bilirubin 6.2, alkaline phosphatase 450, AST 150, ALT 120, albumin 2.6. The next diagnostic test of choice would be

• A. Liver biopsy
• B. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
• C. Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C RNA assay
• D. Colonoscopy with biopsies

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with abnormal liver function tests, suggests a biliary tract problem. Given the suspicion of obstructed bile flow and the negative liver ultrasound for gallstones, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is the next appropriate step to evaluate the biliary system and pancreatic ducts. MRCP is non-invasive and can provide detailed images for diagnosis. Liver biopsy is not the preferred initial diagnostic test in this context. Testing for hepatitis B and C would not address the current clinical scenario, and colonoscopy is not indicated for the presenting symptoms.

3. Which of the following statements about Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) is false?

• A. H. pylori does not invade the gastric or duodenal epithelium
• B. H. pylori stimulates gastric acid secretion
• C. Eradication of H. pylori prevents adenocarcinoma of the stomach
• D. H. pylori produces a urease that splits urea into ammonia and CO2

Correct answer: C

Rationale: H. pylori is known to reside in the mucus layer of the stomach and does not invade the epithelium. It produces urease that splits urea into ammonia and CO2. This action helps in neutralizing the acidic environment and allows H. pylori to survive. Additionally, urease activity can be detected in diagnostic tests for H. pylori. The stimulation of gastric acid secretion and disruption of the protective mucus layer are mechanisms by which H. pylori promotes injury. While eradicating H. pylori infection has been associated with a decreased risk of developing gastric cancer, it does not prevent adenocarcinoma of the stomach entirely.

4. A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 30-year-old woman with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria is highly suggestive of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency and subsequent hyperglycemia. The presence of ketonuria indicates the breakdown of fats for energy due to the lack of insulin. In contrast, type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents with gradual onset and is often associated with insulin resistance rather than absolute insulin deficiency. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria and polydipsia but is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism may present with symptoms like fatigue but does not typically cause hyperglycemia or ketonuria.

5. A male infant born at 30-weeks gestation at an outlying hospital is being prepared for transport to a Level IV neonatal facility. His respirations are 90/min, and his heart rate is 150 beats per minute. Which drug is the transport team most likely to administer to this infant?

• A. Ampicillin (Omnipen) 25 mg/kg slow IV push.
• B. Gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) 2.5 mg/kg IV.
• C. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 20 micrograms/kg IV.
• D. Beractant (Survanta) 100 mg/kg per endotracheal tube.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the infant is a preterm neonate with respiratory distress and is being transported to a Level IV neonatal facility. The drug most likely to be administered by the transport team is Beractant (Survanta) via endotracheal tube. Beractant is a surfactant used to treat respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants by improving lung compliance and reducing the need for mechanical ventilation.

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