Nursing Elites

1. A client with a cold is taking the antitussive benzonatate (Tessalon). Which assessment data indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Reports reduced nasal discharge.
• B. Denies having coughing spells.
• C. Able to sleep through the night.
• D. Expectorating bronchial secretions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Denying having coughing spells indicates the effectiveness of benzonatate, an antitussive that suppresses coughing. The goal of antitussive medications like benzonatate is to reduce or eliminate coughing, so the absence of coughing spells signifies the drug's efficacy. The other options do not directly reflect the medication's intended effect and are not specific indicators of benzonatate's effectiveness.

2. What is the primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. No need for regular INR monitoring
• B. Lower risk of bleeding
• C. Fewer dietary restrictions
• D. Longer half-life

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is that rivaroxaban does not require regular INR monitoring. This eliminates the need for frequent blood tests to adjust the dosage, making it more convenient for patients to manage their anticoagulant therapy.

3. A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the nurse provide regarding this medication?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia.
• C. Take the medication with meals.
• D. Increase intake of simple carbohydrates.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient prescribed metformin is to take the medication with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects commonly associated with metformin. Patients should also be educated about the signs of lactic acidosis, a rare but serious side effect associated with metformin use.

4. The nurse is caring for four clients: Client A, who has emphysema and an oxygen saturation of 94%; Client B, with a postoperative hemoglobin of 8.7 g/dL; Client C, newly admitted with a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L; and Client D, scheduled for an appendectomy with a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Increase Client A's oxygen to 4 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
• B. Determine if Client B has two units of packed cells available in the blood bank.
• C. Ask the dietitian to add a banana to Client C's breakfast tray.
• D. Inform Client D that surgery is likely to be delayed until the infection is treated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A high white blood cell count, as seen in Client D, indicates infection, which may require postponing surgery to treat the infection adequately. It is crucial to address the underlying infection before proceeding with the appendectomy to prevent complications and ensure a successful surgical outcome.

5. A client's healthcare provider has ordered a 'liver panel' in response to the client's development of jaundice. When reviewing the results of this laboratory testing, the nurse should expect to review what blood tests? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
• B. C-reactive protein (CRP)
• C. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)
• D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A 'liver panel' is a group of blood tests used to evaluate liver function. The components typically include ALT, GGT, and AST. While C-reactive protein (CRP) is a marker of inflammation and not part of a standard liver panel, it may be ordered for other diagnostic purposes.

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