ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client with a cold is taking the antitussive benzonatate (Tessalon). Which assessment data indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Reports reduced nasal discharge.
- B. Denies having coughing spells.
- C. Able to sleep through the night.
- D. Expectorating bronchial secretions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Denying having coughing spells indicates the effectiveness of benzonatate, an antitussive that suppresses coughing. The goal of antitussive medications like benzonatate is to reduce or eliminate coughing, so the absence of coughing spells signifies the drug's efficacy. The other options do not directly reflect the medication's intended effect and are not specific indicators of benzonatate's effectiveness.
2. A patient with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. What should the nurse do to prepare the patient for the procedure?
- A. Have the patient void immediately before the procedure.
- B. Position the patient upright or semi-Fowler's in bed.
- C. Administer a full liquid diet.
- D. Encourage the patient to ambulate for 30 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct preparation for a paracentesis in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites includes having the patient void immediately before the procedure. This is important to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the paracentesis. Positioning for a paracentesis is typically upright or semi-Fowler's, not flat in bed. Administering a full liquid diet or encouraging ambulation for 30 minutes are not directly related to preparing a patient for a paracentesis procedure.
3. A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C. Diabetes insipidus
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 30-year-old woman with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria is highly suggestive of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency and subsequent hyperglycemia. The presence of ketonuria indicates the breakdown of fats for energy due to the lack of insulin. In contrast, type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents with gradual onset and is often associated with insulin resistance rather than absolute insulin deficiency. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria and polydipsia but is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism may present with symptoms like fatigue but does not typically cause hyperglycemia or ketonuria.
4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum amylase.
- B. Serum sodium.
- C. Serum calcium.
- D. Serum potassium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, serum amylase is a crucial laboratory value to monitor closely. Elevated levels of serum amylase are a key indicator of pancreatic inflammation and can help confirm the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Therefore, monitoring serum amylase levels is essential for assessing the progression and severity of the condition in a client with acute pancreatitis.
5. An elderly client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted to the hospital. Which laboratory test result should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Elevated serum sodium level.
- B. Decreased brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level.
- C. Increased serum creatinine level.
- D. Elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In clients with congestive heart failure (CHF), impaired cardiac function can lead to decreased renal perfusion, resulting in elevated serum creatinine levels. Therefore, an increased serum creatinine level is a common laboratory finding in CHF clients, indicating possible renal impairment.
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