Nursing Elites

1. While assessing a 70-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease, the nurse notes deep inflamed cracks at the corners of her mouth. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Apply a moisturizing cream to the affected areas.
• B. Encourage the client to consume foods rich in vitamin B.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation.
• D. Ensure that the client gets adequate B vitamins in foods or supplements.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cracks at the corners of the mouth, known as angular cheilitis, can be a sign of vitamin B deficiency, specifically B2 (riboflavin) or B3 (niacin). The nurse should ensure that the client receives adequate B vitamins through foods rich in these nutrients or supplements to address the deficiency, which can help improve the condition of the client's mouth.

2. In evaluating a 10-year-old child with meningitis suspected of having diabetes insipidus, which finding is indicative of diabetes insipidus?

• A. Decreased urine specific gravity.
• B. Elevated urine glucose.
• C. Decreased serum potassium.
• D. Increased serum sodium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the kidneys' inability to concentrate urine, leading to decreased urine specific gravity. This results in the excretion of large volumes of dilute urine, causing a decrease in urine specific gravity. Therefore, when evaluating a suspected case of diabetes insipidus, a finding of decreased urine specific gravity is indicative of this condition.

3. In planning the turning schedule for a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to consider what assessment finding?

• A. 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities.
• B. A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten.
• C. Warm, dry skin with a fever of 100° F.
• D. Hypoactive bowel sounds with infrequent bowel movements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low Braden score indicates a high risk for pressure ulcers, making regular turning crucial to prevent skin breakdown.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the client is at risk for infection?

• A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL.
• B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3.
• C. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm3.
• D. Serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm3 is low and indicates leukopenia, which increases the client's risk for infection. Hemoglobin level and platelet count are not directly indicative of infection risk. Serum creatinine level is related to kidney function, not infection risk.

5. A client who delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago is complaining of a severe headache. The client's blood pressure is 110/70, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/minute, heart rate is 74 beats/minute, and temperature is 98.6º F. The client's fundus is firm and one fingerbreadth above the umbilicus. What action should the healthcare team implement first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the assessment findings.
• B. Determine if the client received anesthesia during delivery.
• C. Assign a licensed nurse to reassess the client's vital signs.
• D. Obtain a STAT hemoglobin and hematocrit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to implement first is to determine if the client received anesthesia during delivery. Anesthesia can be a potential cause of postpartum headaches. This information is crucial in assessing and managing the client's condition effectively before considering other interventions. It helps in identifying possible contributing factors to the client's complaint of a severe headache and guides the healthcare team in providing appropriate care and treatment.

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