Nursing Elites

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. International normalized ratio (INR)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works by prolonging the clotting time, which is reflected in the aPTT results. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range and not at risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (PT) (Choice A) primarily measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice B) assesses the number of platelets present in the blood and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. International normalized ratio (INR) (Choice D) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.

2. The client has acute pancreatitis. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority?

• A. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's serum amylase and lipase levels.
• C. Encourage oral intake of clear liquids.
• D. Assess the client's bowel sounds every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication as prescribed is the highest priority when caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis is often associated with severe abdominal pain, and alleviating this pain is crucial for the client's comfort and well-being. Pain management can also help reduce stress on the pancreas and promote recovery. Monitoring serum amylase and lipase levels, encouraging oral intake of clear liquids, and assessing bowel sounds are important interventions but addressing the client's pain takes precedence to provide immediate relief and improve outcomes.

3. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased heart rate.
• B. Decreased pedal edema.
• C. Elevated blood pressure.
• D. Improved urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with heart failure, decreased pedal edema is a positive indicator of improved cardiac output and reduced fluid retention. Digoxin works by increasing the strength of the heart's contractions, leading to improved circulation and reduced symptoms of heart failure, such as edema. Monitoring for decreased pedal edema is essential to assess the effectiveness of digoxin therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because an increased heart rate, elevated blood pressure, and improved urine output are not specific indicators of digoxin's effectiveness in managing heart failure. Instead, the focus should be on improvements related to fluid retention and cardiac function, like decreased pedal edema.

4. A 45-year-old man with a history of chronic heartburn presents with progressive difficulty swallowing solids and liquids. He has lost 10 pounds in the past two months. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Esophageal stricture
• B. Esophageal cancer
• C. Achalasia
• D. Peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation of progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids, along with significant weight loss, is concerning for esophageal cancer. The history of chronic heartburn further raises suspicion as chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease is a risk factor for the development of esophageal adenocarcinoma. Esophageal stricture could cause dysphagia but is less likely to be associated with significant weight loss. Achalasia typically presents with dysphagia to solids more than liquids and does not commonly cause weight loss. Peptic ulcer disease is less likely to lead to progressive dysphagia and significant weight loss compared to esophageal cancer.

5. Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?

• A. Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy.
• B. Total parenteral nutrition to be infused at 125 ml/hour.
• C. Nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction.
• D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) intermittent piggyback.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen post-CVA, continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy may exacerbate abdominal distension and hypoactive bowel sounds. This situation requires immediate assessment and reevaluation before continuing with the prescription.

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