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Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. A 35-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Laboratory tests reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Cushing's syndrome
- B. Addison's disease
- C. Hypothyroidism
- D. Pheochromocytoma
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 35-year-old man with fatigue, weight loss, hyperpigmentation of the skin, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels is classic for Addison's disease. These findings are consistent with primary adrenal insufficiency, where the adrenal glands fail to produce adequate cortisol. In Addison's disease, the adrenal cortex is damaged, leading to decreased cortisol production and elevated levels of ACTH. This results in symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation due to increased ACTH production stimulating melanocytes. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are common electrolyte abnormalities seen in Addison's disease due to aldosterone deficiency. Therefore, the correct diagnosis in this case is Addison's disease.
2. A client who is receiving heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Apply pressure to the injection site.
- D. Administer protamine sulfate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding. The appropriate action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider. Increasing the heparin infusion rate can further elevate the aPTT, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Applying pressure to the injection site is not relevant in this situation. Administering protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin in cases of overdose or bleeding, but it is not the initial action for an elevated aPTT.
3. What is the primary goal of care for a client experiencing esophageal varices secondary to liver cirrhosis?
- A. Preventing infection
- B. Controlling bleeding
- C. Reducing portal hypertension
- D. Maintaining nutritional status
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of care for a client with esophageal varices secondary to liver cirrhosis is to control bleeding. Esophageal varices are fragile, enlarged veins in the esophagus that can rupture and lead to life-threatening bleeding. Controlling bleeding is crucial to prevent severe complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Preventing infection (Choice A) is important but not the primary goal in this case. Reducing portal hypertension (Choice C) is a long-term goal that may help prevent variceal bleeding but is not the immediate priority. Maintaining nutritional status (Choice D) is essential for overall health but is secondary to controlling bleeding in this critical situation.
4. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Tardive dyskinesia.
- B. Orthostatic hypotension.
- C. Photosensitivity.
- D. Hyperglycemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tardive dyskinesia. Haloperidol (Haldol) is an antipsychotic medication that can lead to tardive dyskinesia, a side effect characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face and body. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial to provide timely interventions and prevent further complications.
5. A patient is being cared for after bariatric surgery, and the healthcare provider is assessing for hemorrhage. What is a sign of hemorrhage?
- A. Increase in blood pressure
- B. Frank red bleeding from the surgical site
- C. Clear drainage from the surgical wound
- D. Decrease in heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Frank red bleeding from the surgical site is a significant sign of hemorrhage that warrants immediate attention. It indicates active bleeding that needs to be addressed promptly to prevent further complications.
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