Nursing Elites

1. A young adult female client is seen in the emergency department for a minor injury following a motor vehicle collision. She states she is very angry at the person who hit her car. What is the best nursing response?

• A. You are lucky to be alive. Be grateful no one was killed.'
• B. I understand your car was not seriously damaged.'
• C. You are upset that this incident has brought you here.'
• D. Have you ever been in the emergency department before?'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Validating the client's feelings can help her express and manage her emotions effectively.

2. The client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds since the last dialysis session.
• C. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dl.
• D. Potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high, a condition known as hyperkalemia, which can lead to severe cardiac complications like arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Immediate medical intervention is necessary to lower potassium levels to prevent life-threatening outcomes in clients undergoing hemodialysis.

3. A patient with an anxiety disorder is prescribed alprazolam. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Increase energy levels
• B. Induce sedation
• C. Elevate mood
• D. Reduce anxiety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine that primarily works by reducing anxiety. It achieves this by enhancing the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter GABA in the brain, which leads to a calming effect on the individual. Therefore, the primary action of alprazolam is to decrease anxiety levels rather than increase energy, induce sedation, or elevate mood.

4. A 46-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis is brought in by his wife because he has been acting strangely. On examination, he is disoriented, ataxic, and has slurred speech. He is also hyperreflexic. His white blood cell count is normal. His hematocrit is 34%. Coagulation times are elevated. His ammonia level is normal. Which of the following statements regarding his management is correct?

• A. He should be treated with a low-protein diet and lactulose
• B. Lorazepam is not the drug of choice to control his behavior
• C. He should not be placed on gentamicin prophylactically to prevent the development of peritonitis
• D. If the patient complains of pain, acetaminophen should be avoided and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents should be used

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms consistent with hepatic encephalopathy. Despite having a normal ammonia level, he should be treated with lactulose and a low-protein diet as recommended for stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. The normal ammonia level does not exclude the diagnosis, as it lacks sensitivity and specificity. Medications like lorazepam, gentamicin, and NSAIDs should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects in patients with liver disease. Acetaminophen should also be avoided in such patients.

5. A client with liver cirrhosis and ascites is being treated with spironolactone. What is a key nursing consideration for this medication?

• A. Monitoring for signs of hyperkalemia
• B. Checking for signs of hypoglycemia
• C. Assessing for signs of dehydration
• D. Observing for symptoms of hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia as it helps retain potassium in the body. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hyperkalemia such as muscle weakness, arrhythmias, or ECG changes is crucial to prevent potential complications.

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