Nursing Elites

1. A young adult female client is seen in the emergency department for a minor injury following a motor vehicle collision. She states she is very angry at the person who hit her car. What is the best nursing response?

• A. You are lucky to be alive. Be grateful no one was killed.'
• B. I understand your car was not seriously damaged.'
• C. You are upset that this incident has brought you here.'
• D. Have you ever been in the emergency department before?'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Validating the client's feelings can help her express and manage her emotions effectively.

2. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central line suddenly develops dyspnea, chest pain, and a drop in blood pressure. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Stop the TPN infusion.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
• D. Administer oxygen at 2 liters/minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client in Trendelenburg position should be the initial action as it can help manage a suspected air embolism, a potential complication of TPN administration. This position helps trap air in the apex of the atrium, reducing the risk of air reaching the pulmonary circulation and causing further harm. Once the client is in a safe position, further actions such as stopping the TPN infusion, notifying the healthcare provider, and administering oxygen can be taken as appropriate.

3. While assessing a 70-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease, the nurse notes deep inflamed cracks at the corners of her mouth. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Apply a moisturizing cream to the affected areas.
• B. Encourage the client to consume foods rich in vitamin B.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation.
• D. Ensure that the client gets adequate B vitamins in foods or supplements.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cracks at the corners of the mouth, known as angular cheilitis, can be a sign of vitamin B deficiency, specifically B2 (riboflavin) or B3 (niacin). The nurse should ensure that the client receives adequate B vitamins through foods rich in these nutrients or supplements to address the deficiency, which can help improve the condition of the client's mouth.

4. An 85-year-old male resident of an extended care facility reaches for the hand of an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and tries to kiss her hand several times during his morning care. The UAP reports the incident to the charge nurse. What is the best assessment of the situation?

• A. This behavior can be considered sexual harassment and should be reported to the administration immediately.
• B. The UAP should be reassigned to another group of residents, preferably females only.
• C. The client may be suffering from touch deprivation and needs to know appropriate ways to express his need.
• D. The resident needs to understand the rules regarding unwanted touching of the staff and the consequences.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the resident's actions of reaching for the UAP's hand and trying to kiss it could indicate a need for touch rather than intentional sexual harassment. The best assessment is to consider the possibility that the client may be experiencing touch deprivation and is seeking appropriate ways to express his need for physical contact. Providing guidance on acceptable ways to seek physical affection can help address the underlying issue and improve the resident's interactions with the staff. Choice A is incorrect because assuming sexual harassment without understanding the context and potential reasons behind the behavior can lead to misinterpretation. Choice B is inappropriate as reassignment based on gender is not a solution and does not address the root cause of the behavior. Choice D is not the best approach as it focuses solely on setting boundaries without considering the resident's underlying need for touch.

5. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

• A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
• B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
• C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
• D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods to prevent its absorption, which is why it should be taken with meals. By taking RenaGel with meals, it can effectively bind with phosphorus from food, reducing the amount of phosphorus absorbed by the body, thus helping to manage hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because RenaGel's primary action is to bind with phosphorus in foods, not related to preventing indigestion, promoting stomach emptying, or buffering hydrochloric acid.

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