because the census is currently low in the obstetrics ob unit one of the nurses is sent to work on a medical surgical unit for the day or until the ob
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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet

1. Because the census is currently low in the Obstetrics (OB) unit, one of the nurses is sent to work on a medical-surgical unit for the day, or until the OB unit becomes busy. Which client assessment is best for the charge nurse to assign to the OB nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The OB nurse is most experienced in postoperative care, making the client who had a recent colon resection the most suitable assignment. This client would require care that aligns closely with the expertise and skills of the OB nurse, ensuring optimal patient outcomes and effective utilization of nursing resources.

2. A patient is being cared for after bariatric surgery, and the healthcare provider is assessing for hemorrhage. What is a sign of hemorrhage?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frank red bleeding from the surgical site is a significant sign of hemorrhage that warrants immediate attention. It indicates active bleeding that needs to be addressed promptly to prevent further complications.

3. A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, along with laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria strongly suggest type 1 diabetes mellitus. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, there is a deficiency of insulin leading to high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia) and the breakdown of fats producing ketones, causing ketonuria. Type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents differently and is more common in older individuals. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, distinct from the provided clinical scenario. Hyperthyroidism may present with some overlapping symptoms like fatigue, but it does not account for the specific laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria seen in this case.

4. A 45-year-old man with a history of chronic heartburn presents with progressive difficulty swallowing solids and liquids. He has lost 10 pounds in the past two months. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation of progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids, along with significant weight loss, is concerning for esophageal cancer. The history of chronic heartburn further raises suspicion as chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease is a risk factor for the development of esophageal adenocarcinoma. Esophageal stricture could cause dysphagia but is less likely to be associated with significant weight loss. Achalasia typically presents with dysphagia to solids more than liquids and does not commonly cause weight loss. Peptic ulcer disease is less likely to lead to progressive dysphagia and significant weight loss compared to esophageal cancer.

5. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tardive dyskinesia. Haloperidol (Haldol) is an antipsychotic medication that can lead to tardive dyskinesia, a side effect characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face and body. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial to provide timely interventions and prevent further complications.

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