a patient with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole when should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness
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1. A patient with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole should be taken before meals to reduce stomach acid production and promote healing of the ulcer. Taking it before meals ensures that the medication can inhibit acid secretion when the stomach is most active in producing acid, thereby maximizing its effectiveness in treating peptic ulcer disease.

2. A client with a history of gout is experiencing an acute attack. Which medication should the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an acute gout attack, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe colchicine. Colchicine is commonly used to treat acute gout attacks because it works by reducing inflammation and alleviating pain associated with the condition. It is important to note that aspirin is not recommended for gout treatment and may even exacerbate the symptoms. Allopurinol and probenecid are medications used for long-term management of gout by reducing uric acid levels in the blood, but they are not typically prescribed during an acute attack. Therefore, colchicine is the most appropriate medication for managing an acute gout attack.

3. A 46-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis is brought in by his wife because he has been acting strangely. On examination, he is disoriented, ataxic, and has slurred speech. He is also hyperreflexic. His white blood cell count is normal. His hematocrit is 34%. Coagulation times are elevated. His ammonia level is normal. Which of the following statements regarding his management is correct?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms consistent with hepatic encephalopathy. Despite having a normal ammonia level, he should be treated with lactulose and a low-protein diet as recommended for stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. The normal ammonia level does not exclude the diagnosis, as it lacks sensitivity and specificity. Medications like lorazepam, gentamicin, and NSAIDs should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects in patients with liver disease. Acetaminophen should also be avoided in such patients.

4. A 60-year-old woman presents with pruritus, jaundice, and xanthomas. Laboratory tests reveal elevated cholesterol and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of pruritus, jaundice, and xanthomas, along with elevated cholesterol and alkaline phosphatase levels, is classic for primary biliary cirrhosis. Pruritus is often the initial symptom, followed by jaundice due to cholestasis. Xanthomas, elevated cholesterol, and alkaline phosphatase levels are also common findings in primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis and pancreatic cancer may present with similar symptoms but are less likely in this clinical context.

5. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely etiology for this nursing diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diminished cough effort. Clients with myasthenia gravis often experience muscle weakness, including respiratory muscles, which can lead to diminished cough effort. This weakness can result in ineffective airway clearance, putting the client at a high risk. Pain when coughing (choice A) is not directly related to the etiology of ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis. While thick, dry secretions (choice C) and excessive inflammation (choice D) can contribute to airway clearance issues, the primary concern in myasthenia gravis is the muscle weakness affecting cough effort.

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