Nursing Elites

1. A client with Addison's disease is being treated with fludrocortisone (Florinef). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia.
• B. Hyponatremia.
• C. Hypernatremia.
• D. Hypocalcemia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fludrocortisone, such as Florinef, is a mineralocorticoid that promotes sodium retention and potassium excretion, which can lead to hypernatremia. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor for hypernatremia when a client with Addison's disease is being treated with fludrocortisone. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is incorrect because fludrocortisone promotes potassium excretion, leading to hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is incorrect as fludrocortisone promotes sodium retention. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is unrelated to the action of fludrocortisone.

2. When planning care for a 16-year-old with appendicitis presenting with right lower quadrant pain, what should the nurse prioritize as a nursing diagnosis?

• A. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to decreased oral intake
• B. Risk for infection related to possible rupture of the appendix
• C. Constipation related to decreased bowel motility and decreased fluid intake
• D. Chronic pain related to appendicitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with appendicitis is the 'Risk for infection related to possible rupture of the appendix.' Appendicitis carries a risk of the appendix rupturing, which can lead to peritonitis, a life-threatening condition. Preventing infection through timely intervention and surgery is critical in the care of a client with appendicitis, making this nursing diagnosis the priority.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which pre-procedure instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Maintain a low-protein diet for 24 hours before the biopsy.
• B. Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy.
• C. Drink plenty of fluids before the procedure.
• D. Take your routine medications with a full glass of water before the biopsy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct pre-procedure instruction the nurse should provide to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for a renal biopsy is to avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy. This instruction is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding during the procedure, as anticoagulants can increase the chance of bleeding complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because maintaining a low-protein diet, drinking plenty of fluids, or taking routine medications with water are not specifically related to reducing the risk of bleeding associated with a renal biopsy in a client with CKD.

4. A 56-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has severe joint pain and swelling in her hands. She has a history of peptic ulcer disease five years ago but presently has no GI symptoms. You elect to start her on an NSAID. Which of the following is correct?

• A. Proton-pump inhibitors and H2-blockers are equally effective in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity.
• B. Misoprostol is superior to an H2-blocker in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity.
• C. Sucralfate is not the drug of choice for prophylaxis in this patient.
• D. H. pylori infection can alter the risk for an NSAID-induced ulcer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of peptic ulcer disease puts her at risk for NSAID-related GI toxicity. Misoprostol and proton-pump inhibitors have shown superiority over H2-blockers in preventing NSAID-related GI toxicity. H. pylori infection can indeed increase the risk of an NSAID-induced ulcer in infected patients who are starting NSAID therapy. Sucralfate has not been proven to be effective in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity. Therefore, the correct choice is B, as misoprostol is the preferred option over an H2-blocker in this context.

5. A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and coronary artery disease (s/p coronary artery bypass graft two years ago) presents to the emergency room with fevers and left-sided abdominal pain. His physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.5°F, pulse 96, and blood pressure of 135/80. His abdomen is soft with moderate left lower quadrant tenderness. There is no rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are present. A CT scan is done which reveals inflammation around an area of the left colon. The next step in his workup/management should be

• A. Antibiotic therapy with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
• B. Referral for urgent colonoscopy
• C. Referral to a surgeon for immediate hemicolectomy
• D. Barium enema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with diverticulitis without evidence of perforation or abscess formation on CT scan. During acute infections, procedures like barium enema and colonoscopy should be avoided to prevent the risk of perforation. Urgent surgery is not indicated initially. The appropriate next step is to start antibiotic therapy aimed at gram-negative aerobes and anaerobes, such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole, which are the initial treatment of choice for diverticulitis.

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