a 40 year old woman presents with a history of chronic constipation bloating and abdominal pain she notes that the pain is relieved with defecation sh
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1. A 40-year-old woman presents with a history of chronic constipation, bloating, and abdominal pain. She notes that the pain is relieved with defecation. She denies any weight loss, blood in her stools, or nocturnal symptoms. Physical examination and routine blood tests are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of chronic constipation, bloating, abdominal pain relieved with defecation, absence of weight loss, blood in stools, or nocturnal symptoms, along with normal physical examination and routine blood tests, are indicative of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). IBS is a functional gastrointestinal disorder characterized by abdominal pain or discomfort and altered bowel habits in the absence of any organic cause. It is a diagnosis of exclusion made based on symptom criteria, and the provided clinical scenario aligns with the typical presentation of IBS.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels regularly is crucial for clients with type 2 diabetes who are taking metformin. This helps assess the effectiveness of the medication in managing blood sugar levels and allows for timely adjustments in the treatment plan if needed. By monitoring blood glucose levels, the client and healthcare team can work together to achieve optimal diabetes control and prevent complications associated with uncontrolled blood sugar levels.

3. A client who is receiving heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding. The appropriate action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider. Increasing the heparin infusion rate can further elevate the aPTT, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Applying pressure to the injection site is not relevant in this situation. Administering protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin in cases of overdose or bleeding, but it is not the initial action for an elevated aPTT.

4. During a home visit, the nurse should evaluate the adequacy of a client's COPD treatment by assessing for which primary symptom?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for dyspnea is crucial when evaluating COPD treatment effectiveness as it is a primary symptom of the condition. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a common and distressing symptom in COPD patients. Monitoring the severity of dyspnea can provide valuable insights into the client's response to treatment and disease progression.

5. When evaluating a client's understanding of wearing a Holter monitor, which statement made by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client understands the procedure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recording symptoms that occur with activity is crucial when wearing a Holter monitor. This information helps in correlating symptoms with cardiac events, aiding in the diagnosis and treatment of the client's condition. The client's understanding of this aspect demonstrates comprehension of the procedure and its purpose.

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