ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Raynaud's phenomenon. Which finding should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Thickened and hardened skin.
- B. Painless ulcers on the fingertips.
- C. Episodes of cyanosis and pallor in the fingers.
- D. Red, scaly patches on the hands.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Raynaud's phenomenon is characterized by vasospasm, leading to episodes of cyanosis (bluish discoloration) and pallor (pale color) in the fingers or toes, often triggered by cold temperatures or stress. This occurs due to the reduced blood flow during vasospastic episodes, causing the discoloration. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect findings associated with other conditions and are not typical of Raynaud's phenomenon.
2. A client who has just started taking levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) for Parkinson's disease reports experiencing nausea. What should the nurse recommend to the client?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Consume a low-protein snack with the medication.
- C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
- D. Stop taking the medication and notify your healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet). Consuming a low-protein snack with the medication can help reduce nausea. The protein in food can compete with levodopa for absorption, so taking it with a low-protein snack may improve its effectiveness and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option A is incorrect as taking the medication on an empty stomach may exacerbate nausea. Option C is incorrect because increasing intake of dairy products is not recommended to alleviate nausea. Option D is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without healthcare provider guidance can lead to adverse effects.
3. Why is a client with ascites scheduled for a paracentesis procedure?
- A. To diagnose liver disease
- B. To relieve abdominal pressure
- C. To assess kidney function
- D. To reduce blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "To relieve abdominal pressure." Paracentesis is performed to drain accumulated fluid in the peritoneal cavity, providing symptomatic relief for clients with ascites. Choice A is incorrect because paracentesis is not a diagnostic procedure for liver disease. Choice C is incorrect as assessing kidney function would typically involve different procedures. Choice D is incorrect as paracentesis does not directly impact blood pressure.
4. A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Increase cardiac output
- B. Reduce fluid retention
- C. Decrease heart rate
- D. Lower blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Carvedilol, a beta-blocker, is primarily prescribed in patients with chronic heart failure to decrease heart rate and reduce the workload on the heart. By lowering the heart rate, carvedilol helps the heart function more efficiently and improves symptoms in patients with heart failure.
5. The charge nurse observes that a client with a nasogastric tube on low intermittent suction is drinking a glass of water immediately after the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) left the room. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Remove the glass of water and speak to the UAP.
- B. Discuss the incident with the UAP at the end of the day.
- C. Write an incident report and notify the healthcare provider.
- D. Remind the client of the potential for electrolyte imbalance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to take is to remove the glass of water and speak to the UAP. This ensures immediate correction and education to prevent further issues with the nasogastric tube. Addressing the situation promptly can prevent harm to the client and reinforces the importance of following proper protocols.
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