ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus presents with confusion, sweating, and palpitations. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
- B. Administer 10 units of insulin.
- C. Give the client a high-protein snack.
- D. Measure the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for a client presenting with confusion, sweating, and palpitations, suggestive of hypoglycemia, is to check the client's blood glucose level. This step helps to confirm if the symptoms are due to low blood sugar levels and guides appropriate interventions. Administering insulin without knowing the current blood glucose level can be dangerous and is not recommended as the initial step. Offering a high-protein snack may be necessary after confirming hypoglycemia, but checking the blood glucose level takes precedence. Measuring blood pressure is not the priority in this situation; addressing hypoglycemia is the immediate concern.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Platelet count.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT).
- C. Hemoglobin level.
- D. White blood cell count.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is monitored to ensure therapeutic levels of warfarin and prevent bleeding complications.
3. When covering another nurse's assignment during a lunch break, based on the status report provided, which client should the charge nurse check first?
- A. The client admitted yesterday with diabetic ketoacidosis whose blood glucose level is now 195 mg/dl.
- B. The client with an ileal conduit created two days ago with a scant amount of blood in the drainage pouch.
- C. The client post-triple coronary bypass four days ago who has serosanguinous drainage in the chest tube.
- D. The client with a pneumothorax secondary to a gunshot wound with a current pulse oximeter reading of 90%.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client with a pneumothorax and a pulse oximeter reading of 90% indicates potential respiratory compromise, requiring immediate attention to prevent further deterioration.
4. What health promotion teaching should prioritize to prevent drug-induced hepatitis?
- A. Finish all prescribed courses of antibiotics, regardless of symptom resolution
- B. Adhere to dosing recommendations of over-the-counter analgesics
- C. Ensure that expired medications are disposed of safely
- D. Ensure that pharmacists regularly review drug regimens for potential interactions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Adhering to dosing recommendations of over-the-counter analgesics is crucial in preventing drug-induced hepatitis. Overdosing on analgesics can lead to liver damage, making it essential to follow the recommended dosages to reduce the risk of hepatotoxicity.
5. A recently widowed middle-aged female client presents to the psychiatric clinic for evaluation and tells the nurse that she has 'little reason to live.' She describes one previous suicidal gesture and admits to having a gun in her home. To maintain the client's confidentiality and to help ensure her safety, which action is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to remove the gun from her possession.
- B. Notify the client's healthcare provider of the availability of the weapon.
- C. Contact a person of the client's choosing to remove the weapon from the home.
- D. Call the local police department and have the weapon removed from the home.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial to maintain the client's confidentiality while ensuring her safety. Contacting a person chosen by the client to remove the weapon from her home is the best course of action. This approach respects the client's autonomy and helps reduce the risk of harm without involving external authorities unnecessarily.
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