Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid green leafy vegetables.
• B. Take aspirin for headaches.
• C. Use a soft-bristled toothbrush.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client on warfarin therapy, especially with a history of DVT, is to use a soft-bristled toothbrush. This is crucial to prevent gum bleeding, which is a risk due to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Green leafy vegetables are rich in vitamin K, which can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness, so they should be consumed consistently to maintain a balance. Aspirin is not recommended for headaches in clients on warfarin due to the increased risk of bleeding. Limiting fluid intake is not a standard instruction for clients on warfarin therapy.

2. A 60-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with the complaint of right knee pain for the past week. His right knee and calf are warm and edematous. He has a history of diabetes and arthritis. Which neurological assessment action should the nurse perform for this client?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale
• B. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee
• C. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis proximal to the right knee
• D. Optic nerve using an ophthalmoscope

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee to evaluate for neurovascular compromise. This assessment helps determine the perfusion and sensation of the lower extremity, which is crucial in identifying potential vascular or nerve damage that may be causing the client's symptoms.

3. An 85-year-old male resident of an extended care facility reaches for the hand of an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and tries to kiss her hand several times during his morning care. The UAP reports the incident to the charge nurse. What is the best assessment of the situation?

• A. This behavior can be considered sexual harassment and should be reported to the administration immediately.
• B. The UAP should be reassigned to another group of residents, preferably females only.
• C. The client may be suffering from touch deprivation and needs to know appropriate ways to express his need.
• D. The resident needs to understand the rules regarding unwanted touching of the staff and the consequences.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the resident's actions of reaching for the UAP's hand and trying to kiss it could indicate a need for touch rather than intentional sexual harassment. The best assessment is to consider the possibility that the client may be experiencing touch deprivation and is seeking appropriate ways to express his need for physical contact. Providing guidance on acceptable ways to seek physical affection can help address the underlying issue and improve the resident's interactions with the staff. Choice A is incorrect because assuming sexual harassment without understanding the context and potential reasons behind the behavior can lead to misinterpretation. Choice B is inappropriate as reassignment based on gender is not a solution and does not address the root cause of the behavior. Choice D is not the best approach as it focuses solely on setting boundaries without considering the resident's underlying need for touch.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication before bedtime.
• B. Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day.
• C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
• D. Limit your fluid intake to less than 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In heart failure, fluid retention is a concern. Furosemide helps manage this by promoting diuresis. Instructing the client to report weight gain exceeding 2 pounds in a day is crucial as it can indicate fluid accumulation, prompting timely intervention to prevent worsening heart failure symptoms and complications.

5. A 56-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has severe joint pain and swelling in her hands. She has a history of peptic ulcer disease five years ago but presently has no GI symptoms. You elect to start her on an NSAID. Which of the following is correct?

• A. Proton-pump inhibitors and H2-blockers are equally effective in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity.
• B. Misoprostol is superior to an H2-blocker in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity.
• C. Sucralfate is not the drug of choice for prophylaxis in this patient.
• D. H. pylori infection can alter the risk for an NSAID-induced ulcer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of peptic ulcer disease puts her at risk for NSAID-related GI toxicity. Misoprostol and proton-pump inhibitors have shown superiority over H2-blockers in preventing NSAID-related GI toxicity. H. pylori infection can indeed increase the risk of an NSAID-induced ulcer in infected patients who are starting NSAID therapy. Sucralfate has not been proven to be effective in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity. Therefore, the correct choice is B, as misoprostol is the preferred option over an H2-blocker in this context.

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