ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing joint pain and stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help relieve the client's symptoms?
- A. Apply cold packs to the affected joints.
- B. Encourage passive range-of-motion exercises.
- C. Administer a muscle relaxant.
- D. Provide a high-calorie diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging passive range-of-motion exercises is the most appropriate intervention to help relieve symptoms of joint pain and stiffness in clients with severe rheumatoid arthritis. These exercises help maintain joint mobility, prevent muscle contractures, and reduce stiffness in the affected joints. Passive range-of-motion exercises can also improve circulation to the joints, promoting healing and reducing pain. Applying cold packs may help with inflammation and pain temporarily, but it does not address the long-term joint mobility issues associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Muscle relaxants are not typically indicated for managing joint pain and stiffness in rheumatoid arthritis. While nutrition is important for overall health, providing a high-calorie diet is not a direct intervention for relieving joint pain and stiffness in this context.
2. A 62-year-old male client with a history of coronary artery disease complains that his heart is 'racing' and he often feels dizzy. His blood pressure is 110/60, and he uses portable oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. Based on the rhythm shown, which prescription should the nurse administer?
- A. Give magnesium via secondary infusion.
- B. Initiate IV heparin solution as per protocol.
- C. Administer IV adenosine (Adenocard).
- D. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering IV adenosine is the appropriate intervention for a client with symptomatic tachycardia to restore normal sinus rhythm. Adenosine is a medication used to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) by interrupting the reentry pathways through the AV node and restoring normal sinus rhythm. It is a rapid-acting medication given as a rapid IV push followed by a saline flush. The dose is typically administered in a healthcare setting where cardiac monitoring is available due to its potential to cause transient asystole.
3. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L. What intervention can the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?
- A. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) orally.
- B. Erythropoietin (Epogen) intravenously.
- C. Kayexalate retention enema.
- D. Azathioprine (Imuran) orally.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute renal failure with high serum potassium levels, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe a Kayexalate retention enema. Kayexalate is a medication used to lower elevated potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion through the gastrointestinal tract, thus aiding in the management of hyperkalemia in clients with renal failure.
4. A 70-year-old man presents with weight loss, jaundice, and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Gallstones
- B. Hepatitis
- C. Pancreatic cancer
- D. Primary biliary cirrhosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The presentation of a 70-year-old man with weight loss, jaundice, a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels is highly suggestive of pancreatic cancer. This clinical scenario, known as Courvoisier's sign, points towards a pancreatic malignancy due to biliary obstruction. Gallstones could cause similar symptoms but would typically not present with a palpable mass. Hepatitis usually does not present with a palpable mass and would have different laboratory findings. Primary biliary cirrhosis typically presents differently with chronic cholestasis without the presence of a palpable mass or a pancreatic lesion.
5. What is the primary action of a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) prescribed to a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?
- A. Reduce inflammation
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Thin respiratory secretions
- D. Suppress cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. The primary action of short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) is to relieve bronchospasm. These medications are bronchodilators that work by opening the airways, making breathing easier for patients experiencing asthma exacerbations. By relieving bronchospasm, SABAs help improve airflow and alleviate symptoms of asthma such as wheezing and shortness of breath. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because SABAs do not primarily reduce inflammation, thin respiratory secretions, or suppress cough. While these actions may be part of asthma management, the immediate goal of using a SABA during an acute exacerbation is to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow.
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