a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis dvt is prescribed rivaroxaban what is the primary advantage of this medication over warfarin
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Adult Medical Surgical

1. What is the primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is that rivaroxaban does not require regular INR monitoring. This eliminates the need for frequent blood tests to adjust the dosage, making it more convenient for patients to manage their anticoagulant therapy.

2. In acute pancreatitis, a client experiencing severe abdominal pain should have which enzyme level closely monitored?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, serum amylase levels should be closely monitored. Elevated serum amylase levels are a key diagnostic marker for acute pancreatitis, aiding in the assessment and management of the patient's condition. Monitoring serum sodium, calcium, or potassium levels is not typically associated with acute pancreatitis and would not provide relevant information for this specific condition.

3. For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing montelukast?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Montelukast, a leukotriene receptor antagonist, is primarily prescribed to prevent asthma attacks. It works by reducing inflammation and bronchoconstriction in the airways, thereby helping to control asthma symptoms and prevent exacerbations.

4. While assessing a 70-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease, the nurse notes deep inflamed cracks at the corners of her mouth. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cracks at the corners of the mouth, known as angular cheilitis, can be a sign of vitamin B deficiency, specifically B2 (riboflavin) or B3 (niacin). The nurse should ensure that the client receives adequate B vitamins through foods rich in these nutrients or supplements to address the deficiency, which can help improve the condition of the client's mouth.

5. A 60-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with the complaint of right knee pain for the past week. His right knee and calf are warm and edematous. He has a history of diabetes and arthritis. Which neurological assessment action should the nurse perform for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee to evaluate for neurovascular compromise. This assessment helps determine the perfusion and sensation of the lower extremity, which is crucial in identifying potential vascular or nerve damage that may be causing the client's symptoms.

Similar Questions

Which problem in a client requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
The sister of a patient diagnosed with BRCA gene-related breast cancer asks the nurse, 'Do you think I should be tested for the gene?' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A client with liver failure is at an increased risk of bleeding due to the inability to synthesize prothrombin in the liver. What factor most likely contributes to this loss of function?
A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes is preparing for discharge. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A patient with hyperthyroidism is to receive radioactive iodine therapy. What information should the nurse include in the patient teaching plan?

Access More Features

ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses