Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. No need for regular INR monitoring
• B. Lower risk of bleeding
• C. Fewer dietary restrictions
• D. Longer half-life

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is that rivaroxaban does not require regular INR monitoring. This eliminates the need for frequent blood tests to adjust the dosage, making it more convenient for patients to manage their anticoagulant therapy.

2. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. What is an important side effect for the healthcare provider to monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Weight gain
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known to cause significant weight gain and metabolic syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor patients for these side effects to prevent complications and provide appropriate interventions.

3. A client with coronary artery disease (CAD) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Total cholesterol of 180 mg/dL.
• B. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) of 200 mg/dL.
• C. Triglycerides of 150 mg/dL.
• D. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 40 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An LDL level of 200 mg/dL is significantly elevated and requires immediate intervention to reduce the risk of cardiovascular events in a client with coronary artery disease (CAD). High LDL levels contribute to the development and progression of atherosclerosis, which can lead to complications like heart attacks and strokes. Lowering LDL levels is a key goal in managing CAD and preventing further cardiovascular damage. Total cholesterol of 180 mg/dL, triglycerides of 150 mg/dL, and HDL of 40 mg/dL are within acceptable ranges and do not pose an immediate risk that necessitates urgent intervention.

4. When a client expresses, 'I don't know how I will go on' while discussing feelings related to a recent loss, the nurse remains silent. What is the most likely reason for the nurse's behavior?

• A. The nurse is indicating disapproval of the statement.
• B. The nurse is showing respect for the client's loss.
• C. Silence is mirroring the client's sadness.
• D. Silence enables the client to contemplate what was expressed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In therapeutic communication, silence can offer the client an opportunity to process their emotions and thoughts. By remaining silent, the nurse provides a space for the client to reflect on their own words, facilitating deeper exploration and understanding of their feelings.

5. A 9-year-old female client was recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which symptom will her parents most likely report?

• A. Refuses to eat her favorite meals at home.
• B. Drinks more soft drinks than previously.
• C. Voids only one or two times per day.
• D. Gained 10 pounds within one month.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased thirst and fluid intake, such as drinking more soft drinks than previously, is a common symptom of diabetes mellitus in children. This increased thirst is due to the body trying to eliminate excess sugar through urination, leading to dehydration and the need for more fluids. The other choices are less likely to be directly related to the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus in this scenario.

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