Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. No need for regular INR monitoring
• B. Lower risk of bleeding
• C. Fewer dietary restrictions
• D. Longer half-life

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is that rivaroxaban does not require regular INR monitoring. This eliminates the need for frequent blood tests to adjust the dosage, making it more convenient for patients to manage their anticoagulant therapy.

2. A 65-year-old white female with a history of arthritis, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis complains of odynophagia for two weeks. A barium swallow shows a moderate-sized crater just above the gastroesophageal junction. What is the least likely contributor to this condition?

• A. NSAIDs
• B. Alendronate
• C. Iron sulfate
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the least likely contributor to the condition described is the calcium channel blocker. NSAIDs, alendronate, and iron sulfate have been associated with pill-induced esophagitis, which can present with symptoms like odynophagia and erosions or ulcers on imaging studies. Pill-induced esophagitis is often due to factors like inadequate water intake with the medication, being in a supine position, or underlying motility disorders. Discontinuation of the offending medication typically leads to rapid resolution of esophageal injury. Acid-suppressive therapy may be used to prevent reflux-related damage.

3. A client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being discharged home. Which statement indicates the client understands the instructions about managing blood glucose levels?

• A. I will test my blood glucose level once a week.
• B. I should eat a snack if my blood glucose is 70 mg/dl.
• C. If I feel shaky, I should take another dose of insulin.
• D. It's okay to skip a meal if I'm not hungry.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. Eating a snack when blood glucose is low (70 mg/dl) can help prevent hypoglycemia. It is important for clients with diabetes to manage their blood glucose levels to prevent complications, and consuming a snack when glucose levels drop can help maintain the balance.

4. After a client with ascites due to liver cirrhosis undergoes a paracentesis, what should the nurse do post-procedure?

• A. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure and heart rate
• C. Position the client flat on their back
• D. Administer a dose of furosemide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Post-paracentesis, monitoring the client's blood pressure and heart rate is crucial as it helps in early detection of potential complications such as hypotension or bleeding. This close observation enables timely intervention and ensures the client's safety.

5. A client with a history of chronic alcohol use is admitted with confusion and an unsteady gait. Which deficiency should the nurse suspect?

• A. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• B. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12)
• C. Folic acid
• D. Vitamin D

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Thiamine (Vitamin B1). Chronic alcohol use can lead to thiamine deficiency, which can result in neurological symptoms such as confusion and an unsteady gait. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function and nerve conduction, and its deficiency is common in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) deficiency can also present with neurological symptoms, but in this case, the patient's history of chronic alcohol use points more towards thiamine deficiency. Folic acid deficiency typically presents with symptoms like fatigue and megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone health issues rather than neurological symptoms.

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