a client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed ranitidine zantac which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching
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1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed ranitidine (Zantac). Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's statement that they should take ranitidine with meals indicates a need for further teaching. Ranitidine is typically taken at bedtime or before meals to be most effective in reducing stomach acid. Taking it with meals may not provide the optimal therapeutic effect.

2. An older adult with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease has been experiencing fecal incontinence, with no recent change in stool character noted by the nurse. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for an older adult with Alzheimer's disease experiencing fecal incontinence and no change in stool character is to toilet the client on a frequent, scheduled basis. Scheduled toileting can help manage incontinence by establishing a routine for bowel movements, which may aid in reducing episodes of fecal incontinence.

3. The client with newly diagnosed osteoporosis is being taught by the nurse about dietary modifications. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increasing the intake of high-calcium foods is essential for improving bone density and managing osteoporosis. Calcium is a key mineral necessary for bone health, and individuals with osteoporosis often need higher levels of calcium to help strengthen their bones and prevent further bone loss. Therefore, advising the client to increase their intake of high-calcium foods is the most appropriate dietary modification to support their bone health.

4. A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and coronary artery disease (s/p coronary artery bypass graft two years ago) presents to the emergency room with fevers and left-sided abdominal pain. His physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.5°F, pulse 96, and blood pressure of 135/80. His abdomen is soft with moderate left lower quadrant tenderness. There is no rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are present. A CT scan is done which reveals inflammation around an area of the left colon. The next step in his workup/management should be

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with diverticulitis without evidence of perforation or abscess formation on CT scan. During acute infections, procedures like barium enema and colonoscopy should be avoided to prevent the risk of perforation. Urgent surgery is not indicated initially. The appropriate next step is to start antibiotic therapy aimed at gram-negative aerobes and anaerobes, such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole, which are the initial treatment of choice for diverticulitis.

5. A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased peripheral edema.' In a client with heart failure receiving furosemide, decreased peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt through increased urine output, leading to a reduction in peripheral edema, which is a common symptom of heart failure. Monitoring and recognizing this improvement in edema are crucial in managing heart failure effectively.

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