a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation is prescribed a short acting beta2 agonist saba what is the primary action of this medication
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ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet

1. What is the primary action of a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) prescribed to a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. The primary action of short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) is to relieve bronchospasm. These medications are bronchodilators that work by opening the airways, making breathing easier for patients experiencing asthma exacerbations. By relieving bronchospasm, SABAs help improve airflow and alleviate symptoms of asthma such as wheezing and shortness of breath. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because SABAs do not primarily reduce inflammation, thin respiratory secretions, or suppress cough. While these actions may be part of asthma management, the immediate goal of using a SABA during an acute exacerbation is to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow.

2. A client is being treated with an antidepressant for major depressive disorder. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stopping antidepressants abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's instructions and complete the full course of medication even if they start feeling better to prevent potential relapse or withdrawal effects.

3. A patient with an anxiety disorder is prescribed alprazolam. What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine that primarily works by reducing anxiety. It achieves this by enhancing the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter GABA in the brain, which leads to a calming effect on the individual. Therefore, the primary action of alprazolam is to decrease anxiety levels rather than increase energy, induce sedation, or elevate mood.

4. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a foot ulcer. The nurse should recognize that which intervention is most critical in promoting healing of the foot ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic clients with foot ulcers, strict control of blood glucose levels is essential for promoting wound healing. High blood glucose levels can impair circulation and compromise the body's ability to fight infection, delaying the healing process. By maintaining optimal blood glucose levels, the client's overall health and wound healing potential are improved.

5. A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 30-year-old woman with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria is highly suggestive of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency and subsequent hyperglycemia. The presence of ketonuria indicates the breakdown of fats for energy due to the lack of insulin. In contrast, type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents with gradual onset and is often associated with insulin resistance rather than absolute insulin deficiency. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria and polydipsia but is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism may present with symptoms like fatigue but does not typically cause hyperglycemia or ketonuria.

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