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1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
- A. Use this medication only during acute exacerbations.
- B. Rinse your mouth after using the inhaler.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Increase your fluid intake to at least 3 liters per day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching for a client prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva) is to rinse the mouth after using the inhaler. Rinsing the mouth helps prevent oral thrush, a common side effect of inhaled medications. This action reduces the risk of developing oral fungal infections, promoting better oral health for the client.
2. What is/are the possible cause(s) of acute pancreatitis in this patient?
- A. HIV
- B. Cytomegalovirus
- C. Dideoxyinosine (ddI)
- D. Pentamidine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms and lab findings consistent with acute pancreatitis. Cytomegalovirus is a common viral infection associated with pancreatitis. In patients with AIDS, the pancreas can be affected by various infections (e.g., cryptococcus, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, candida, Toxoplasma gondii) and medications (such as ddI, pentamidine, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, metronidazole) can also lead to acute pancreatitis. While HIV infection predisposes individuals to various opportunistic infections, in this case, the most likely cause of the acute pancreatitis is cytomegalovirus infection.
3. In a 45-year-old woman with a history of arthritis experiencing severe heartburn and indigestion refractory to antacids, which findings on an esophageal manometry study are consistent with her diagnosis?
- A. Vigorous peristalsis and elevated lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure
- B. Absent peristalsis and elevated LES pressure
- C. Absent peristalsis and decreased LES pressure
- D. Vigorous peristalsis and decreased LES pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absent peristalsis and decreased lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure. The patient in this scenario has scleroderma esophagus, characterized by atrophy of esophageal smooth muscle, leading to the loss of peristalsis and LES tone. These changes contribute to severe symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and esophagitis. Absent peristalsis and decreased LES pressure are typical findings in scleroderma esophagus, contributing to the refractory nature of the patient's symptoms despite antacid use.
4. An adolescent patient seeks care in the emergency department after sharing needles for heroin injection with a friend who has hepatitis B. To provide immediate protection from infection, what medication will the nurse administer?
- A. Corticosteroids
- B. Gamma globulin
- C. Hepatitis B vaccine
- D. Fresh frozen plasma
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the immediate need is to provide passive immunity to the adolescent patient. Gamma globulin contains antibodies against hepatitis B, which can offer immediate protection. The hepatitis B vaccine provides active immunity over time but is not immediate. Fresh frozen plasma and corticosteroids are not indicated for immediate protection against hepatitis B infection. Therefore, the correct choice is Gamma globulin as it can provide immediate passive immunity against hepatitis B.
5. What is the primary action of amlodipine when prescribed to a patient with hypertension?
- A. Increase heart rate
- B. Reduce blood pressure
- C. Lower cholesterol levels
- D. Decrease blood sugar levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that works by relaxing the blood vessels, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. This medication does not increase heart rate, lower cholesterol levels, or decrease blood sugar levels.
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