Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary action of digoxin when prescribed to a patient with heart failure?

• A. Increase heart rate
• B. Decrease cardiac output
• C. Strengthen cardiac contractions
• D. Lower blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Digoxin, when prescribed to a patient with heart failure, primarily acts by strengthening cardiac contractions. This leads to an improvement in cardiac output, making it an essential medication in managing heart failure. By enhancing the force of contractions, digoxin helps the heart pump more effectively and efficiently, leading to better circulation and symptom control in patients with compromised cardiac function.

2. A 32-year-old woman presents with a 10-month history of an intermittent burning sensation in the epigastrium that is sometimes related to eating. She has heard about bacteria that can cause gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. She has had no change in her weight and denies dysphagia. Her laboratory tests are normal. Which of the following would you recommend?

• A. Serum qualitative test for H. pylori
• B. Refer for endoscopy
• C. Obtain an upper GI series
• D. Treat her for H. pylori infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient presents with dyspepsia, described as an intermittent burning sensation in the epigastrium, sometimes related to eating. In individuals under 45 years without warning signs such as anemia, weight loss, or dysphagia, a serum qualitative test for H. pylori is recommended to document H. pylori infection, especially if the patient has not been previously treated. It's important to note that a serum IgG can remain positive post-eradication. If H. pylori-positive patients do not respond to treatment, an endoscopy would be the next step for evaluation. An upper GI series is less sensitive than endoscopy in detecting lesions of the upper GI tract and cannot specifically detect H. pylori. Empiric therapy for H. pylori without confirmation is not recommended.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the client is at risk for infection?

• A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL.
• B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3.
• C. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm3.
• D. Serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm3 is low and indicates leukopenia, which increases the client's risk for infection. Hemoglobin level and platelet count are not directly indicative of infection risk. Serum creatinine level is related to kidney function, not infection risk.

4. When assessing a male client who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs), the nurse notes that the infusion was started 30 minutes ago, and 50 ml of blood is left to be infused. The client's vital signs are within normal limits. He reports feeling 'out of breath' but denies any other complaints. What action should the nurse take at this time?

• A. Administer a PRN prescription for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
• B. Start the normal saline attached to the Y-tubing at the same rate.
• C. Decrease the intravenous flow rate of the PRBC transfusion.
• D. Ask the respiratory therapist to administer PRN albuterol (Ventolin).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing symptoms of shortness of breath, which could indicate fluid overload from the PRBC transfusion. By decreasing the intravenous flow rate of the transfusion, the nurse can slow down the rate of blood being infused, potentially alleviating the symptoms of fluid overload and shortness of breath. This intervention can help prevent further complications and promote the client's comfort and safety.

5. In a patient with a history of chronic iron deficiency anemia requiring a recent blood transfusion and an extensive GI work-up, which statement is true based on their medications?

• A. A dedicated small bowel series has a high likelihood of being positive
• B. 81 mg of aspirin per day decreases the benefit of using a COX II inhibitor
• C. The patient should have a provocative arteriogram with heparin infusion to identify the source of blood loss
• D. Hormonal therapy has been shown to be effective in decreasing blood loss due to arteriovenous malformations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking even a low dose of aspirin per day, such as 81 mg, can reduce the protective effect on the gastrointestinal mucosa that is gained from using a COX II selective inhibitor. Aspirin can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which can counteract the benefits of COX II inhibitors in protecting the stomach lining.

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