Nursing Elites

1. A primipara at 38-weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery for a biophysical profile (BPP). The nurse should prepare the client for what procedures?

• A. Chorionic villus sampling under ultrasound.
• B. Amniocentesis and fetal monitoring.
• C. Ultrasonography and nonstress test.
• D. Oxytocin challenge test and fetal heart rate monitoring.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A biophysical profile (BPP) is a prenatal test that assesses the well-being of the fetus. It typically includes ultrasonography to evaluate fetal movements, muscle tone, breathing movements, and amniotic fluid volume. Additionally, a nonstress test is performed to monitor the fetal heart rate in response to its movements. These tests help in determining the overall health and viability of the fetus, making them essential components of prenatal care for assessing fetal well-being.

2. A client who delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago is complaining of a severe headache. The client's blood pressure is 110/70, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/minute, heart rate is 74 beats/minute, and temperature is 98.6º F. The client's fundus is firm and one fingerbreadth above the umbilicus. What action should the healthcare team implement first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the assessment findings.
• B. Determine if the client received anesthesia during delivery.
• C. Assign a licensed nurse to reassess the client's vital signs.
• D. Obtain a STAT hemoglobin and hematocrit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to implement first is to determine if the client received anesthesia during delivery. Anesthesia can be a potential cause of postpartum headaches. This information is crucial in assessing and managing the client's condition effectively before considering other interventions. It helps in identifying possible contributing factors to the client's complaint of a severe headache and guides the healthcare team in providing appropriate care and treatment.

3. What instruction should the nurse give regarding the administration of alendronate to a patient with osteoporosis?

• A. Take the medication with milk.
• B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Take the medication before bedtime.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for administering alendronate to a patient with osteoporosis is to take the medication with a full glass of water first thing in the morning. It is important for the patient to remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to prevent esophageal irritation. Taking alendronate with milk, lying down after intake, or taking it before bedtime can reduce the medication's effectiveness or increase the risk of side effects.

4. A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. The cancer involves only the cervix.
• B. The cancer cells closely resemble normal cells.
• C. Further testing is necessary to determine the spread of the cancer.
• D. Determining the original site of the cervical cancer is challenging.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'The cancer involves only the cervix.' In staging, 'Tis' indicates cancer in situ, which means it is localized to the cervix and not invasive at this time. The differentiation of cancer cells is not part of clinical staging. Since the cancer is in situ, its origin is the cervix. Further testing is not required as the cancer has not spread beyond the cervix. Choice B is incorrect as the staging information provided does not relate to the resemblance of cancer cells to normal cells. Choice C is incorrect because further testing is not necessary as the cancer is localized. Choice D is incorrect because the staging information provided clearly indicates the site of origin as the cervix.

5. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Relieve neuropathic pain
• B. Reduce inflammation
• C. Enhance opioid analgesia
• D. Suppress cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gabapentin is primarily prescribed to relieve neuropathic pain. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the nerves, making it effective in managing conditions such as diabetic neuropathy, postherpetic neuralgia, and other forms of chronic pain originating from nerve damage.

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