a primipara at 38 weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery for a biophysical profile bpp the nurse should prepare the client for what procedu
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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet

1. A primipara at 38-weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery for a biophysical profile (BPP). The nurse should prepare the client for what procedures?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A biophysical profile (BPP) is a prenatal test that assesses the well-being of the fetus. It typically includes ultrasonography to evaluate fetal movements, muscle tone, breathing movements, and amniotic fluid volume. Additionally, a nonstress test is performed to monitor the fetal heart rate in response to its movements. These tests help in determining the overall health and viability of the fetus, making them essential components of prenatal care for assessing fetal well-being.

2. While assessing a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse notes her deep tendon reflexes are 1+, respiratory rate is 12 breaths/minute, urinary output is 90 ml in 4 hours, and magnesium sulfate level is 9 mg/dl. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these findings?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately in a client with preeclampsia exhibiting diminished reflexes, respiratory depression, and low urinary output, which indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. This action is crucial to prevent further complications and adverse effects on the client.

3. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L. What intervention can the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure with high serum potassium levels, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe a Kayexalate retention enema. Kayexalate is a medication used to lower elevated potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion through the gastrointestinal tract, thus aiding in the management of hyperkalemia in clients with renal failure.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is prescribed pyridostigmine (Mestinon). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with myasthenia gravis prescribed pyridostigmine (Mestinon) is to take the medication 30 minutes before meals. This timing is crucial as it helps improve muscle strength for eating and swallowing. By taking the medication before meals, the client can experience enhanced muscle function during mealtime, which is especially important for managing the symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication with food may decrease its effectiveness, avoiding dairy products is not necessary, and taking the medication at bedtime does not coincide with the optimal timing for enhancing muscle function during meals.

5. In a patient with a history of chronic iron deficiency anemia requiring a recent blood transfusion and an extensive GI work-up, which statement is true based on their medications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking even a low dose of aspirin per day, such as 81 mg, can reduce the protective effect on the gastrointestinal mucosa that is gained from using a COX II selective inhibitor. Aspirin can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which can counteract the benefits of COX II inhibitors in protecting the stomach lining.

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