Nursing Elites

1. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

• A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
• B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
• C. Prescribe celecoxib
• D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

2. An elderly client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted to the hospital. Which laboratory test result should the nurse expect to find?

• A. Elevated serum sodium level.
• B. Decreased brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level.
• C. Increased serum creatinine level.
• D. Elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with congestive heart failure (CHF), impaired cardiac function can lead to decreased renal perfusion, resulting in elevated serum creatinine levels. Therefore, an increased serum creatinine level is a common laboratory finding in CHF clients, indicating possible renal impairment.

3. A client is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Headache.
• B. Fever.
• C. Nuchal rigidity.
• D. Seizures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Seizures in a client with suspected meningitis indicate increased intracranial pressure or other complications requiring immediate intervention. Seizures can lead to further neurological damage and need prompt management to prevent adverse outcomes. Therefore, addressing seizures promptly is crucial in the care of a client with suspected meningitis.

4. An elderly female client comes to the clinic for a regular check-up. The client tells the nurse that she has increased her daily doses of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the past month to control joint pain. Based on this client's comment, what previous lab values should the nurse compare with today's lab report?

• A. Look at last quarter's hemoglobin and hematocrit to assess for dehydration.
• B. Look for an increase in today's LDH compared to the previous one to assess for possible liver damage.
• C. Expect to find an increase in today's APTT compared to last quarter's due to bleeding.
• D. Determine if there is a decrease in serum potassium due to renal compromise.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client increases their daily doses of acetaminophen for joint pain, it raises concerns about possible liver damage due to acetaminophen overdose. LDH (Lactate Dehydrogenase) levels can indicate liver function, so comparing today's levels with previous ones can help assess for liver damage caused by acetaminophen overuse.

5. An elderly male client reports to the clinic nurse that he is experiencing increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. He reports a weak urine flow and frequent dribbling after voiding. Which nursing action should be implemented?

• A. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity.
• B. Encourage the client to schedule a digital rectal exam.
• C. Advise the client to maintain a voiding diary for one week.
• D. Instruct the client in effective techniques for cleansing the glans penis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to schedule a digital rectal exam is the most appropriate nursing action in this situation. This exam can help evaluate for potential prostate enlargement or other issues contributing to the urinary symptoms described by the client. It is important to assess the prostate gland for any abnormalities that may be causing the urinary issues reported by the client.

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