Nursing Elites

1. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

• A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
• B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
• C. Prescribe celecoxib
• D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

2. An outcome for treatment of peripheral vascular disease is, 'The client will have decreased venous congestion.' What client behavior would indicate to the nurse that this outcome has been met?

• A. Avoids prolonged sitting or standing.
• B. Avoids trauma and irritation to skin.
• C. Wears protective shoes.
• D. Quits smoking.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoids prolonged sitting or standing.' In clients with peripheral vascular disease, decreased venous congestion is a desired outcome. Avoiding prolonged sitting or standing helps improve venous return and reduces congestion in the lower extremities, contributing to the achievement of this treatment goal.

3. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased blood pressure.
• B. Lowered cholesterol levels.
• C. Decreased heart rate.
• D. Improved liver function.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lowered cholesterol levels. Atorvastatin is a medication commonly prescribed to lower cholesterol levels, which is crucial in reducing the risk of further cardiovascular events, including myocardial infarction (MI). Monitoring cholesterol levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of atorvastatin therapy and its role in preventing future cardiac complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased blood pressure, decreased heart rate, and improved liver function are not direct indicators of atorvastatin's effectiveness in a client with a history of MI.

4. What assessments should the nurse prioritize for a client with portal hypertension admitted to the medical floor?

• A. Assessment of blood pressure and evaluation for headaches and visual changes
• B. Assessment for signs and symptoms of venous thromboembolism
• C. Daily weights and measurement of abdominal girth
• D. Monitoring blood glucose every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In portal hypertension, daily weights and measurement of abdominal girth are crucial assessments to monitor fluid retention and ascites. These assessments help in evaluating the effectiveness of treatment and identifying any worsening of the condition, guiding appropriate interventions. Monitoring blood pressure and assessing for symptoms like headaches and visual changes may be important but are not the priority in this case. Assessing for signs and symptoms of venous thromboembolism is relevant in some situations but not directly related to the primary concerns of portal hypertension.

5. When planning care for a 16-year-old with appendicitis presenting with right lower quadrant pain, what should the nurse prioritize as a nursing diagnosis?

• A. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to decreased oral intake
• B. Risk for infection related to possible rupture of the appendix
• C. Constipation related to decreased bowel motility and decreased fluid intake
• D. Chronic pain related to appendicitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with appendicitis is the 'Risk for infection related to possible rupture of the appendix.' Appendicitis carries a risk of the appendix rupturing, which can lead to peritonitis, a life-threatening condition. Preventing infection through timely intervention and surgery is critical in the care of a client with appendicitis, making this nursing diagnosis the priority.

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