an 82 year old woman with no past history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms she is on no medications at this time but needs so
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1. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

2. The client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary modifications by the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Avoiding lying down immediately after eating is essential in managing GERD as it helps prevent reflux symptoms by allowing gravity to assist in keeping stomach contents down. Lying down can worsen symptoms by allowing acid to flow back into the esophagus.

3. A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the nurse provide regarding this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient prescribed metformin is to take the medication with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects commonly associated with metformin. Patients should also be educated about the signs of lactic acidosis, a rare but serious side effect associated with metformin use.

4. Which signs or symptoms are characteristic of an adult client diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cushing's syndrome is characterized by central-type obesity with thin extremities, often referred to as 'truncal obesity.' This pattern of weight distribution is a key feature of Cushing's syndrome due to excessive cortisol levels, leading to fat accumulation in the face, neck, and abdomen, while the extremities remain relatively thin. The other options listed, such as husky voice, hoarseness, warm, soft, moist, salmon-colored skin, and visible swelling of the neck, are not typical findings associated with Cushing's syndrome.

5. A client with a history of gout is experiencing an acute attack. Which medication should the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an acute gout attack, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe colchicine. Colchicine is commonly used to treat acute gout attacks because it works by reducing inflammation and alleviating pain associated with the condition. It is important to note that aspirin is not recommended for gout treatment and may even exacerbate the symptoms. Allopurinol and probenecid are medications used for long-term management of gout by reducing uric acid levels in the blood, but they are not typically prescribed during an acute attack. Therefore, colchicine is the most appropriate medication for managing an acute gout attack.

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