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Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?
- A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
- B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
- C. Prescribe celecoxib
- D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.
2. A 40-year-old man presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. He has a history of Crohn's disease. Laboratory tests reveal low hemoglobin and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Ulcerative colitis
- B. Irritable bowel syndrome
- C. Celiac disease
- D. Crohn's disease flare
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The symptoms of abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss, along with the history of Crohn's disease, and the laboratory findings of low hemoglobin and elevated ESR, strongly suggest a Crohn's disease flare. These clinical manifestations are classic features of a flare-up in a patient with a known history of Crohn's disease.
3. A patient with an anxiety disorder is prescribed alprazolam. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Increase energy levels
- B. Induce sedation
- C. Elevate mood
- D. Reduce anxiety
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine that primarily works by reducing anxiety. It achieves this by enhancing the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter GABA in the brain, which leads to a calming effect on the individual. Therefore, the primary action of alprazolam is to decrease anxiety levels rather than increase energy, induce sedation, or elevate mood.
4. What action should the nurse take to prevent tracheal tissue damage in a client with a tracheostomy?
- A. Secure the tracheostomy ties firmly.
- B. Change the tracheostomy tube daily.
- C. Use the minimal leak technique when inflating the cuff.
- D. Clean the stoma with hydrogen peroxide.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To prevent tracheal tissue damage in a client with a tracheostomy, the nurse should use the minimal leak technique when inflating the cuff. This method helps avoid excessive pressure on the tracheal tissue, thereby reducing the risk of damage. Choice A is incorrect because securing the tracheostomy ties too tightly can cause pressure and tissue damage. Choice B is incorrect as changing the tracheostomy tube daily is not necessary unless there is a specific clinical indication. Choice D is incorrect as cleaning the stoma with hydrogen peroxide can irritate the skin and mucous membranes, potentially leading to damage.
5. Which assessment finding indicates a client's readiness to leave the nursing unit for a bronchoscopy?
- A. Client denies allergies to contrast media.
- B. Skin prep to insertion site completed.
- C. On-call sedation administered.
- D. Oxygen at 2 L/minute via nasal cannula.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering on-call sedation is crucial before a bronchoscopy to ensure the client is comfortable and adequately prepared for the procedure. Sedation helps reduce anxiety, discomfort, and ensures the client remains still during the bronchoscopy, enabling the healthcare provider to perform the procedure effectively.
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