Nursing Elites

1. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

• A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
• B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
• C. Prescribe celecoxib
• D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent autonomic dysreflexia?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
• B. Keep the client's room warm.
• C. Ensure the client's bladder is emptied regularly.
• D. Limit the client's intake of high-fiber foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent autonomic dysreflexia in clients with spinal cord injuries, it is crucial to ensure the client's bladder is emptied regularly. Bladder distention is a common trigger for autonomic dysreflexia in these clients. Keeping the bladder empty helps prevent the complications associated with autonomic dysreflexia, such as dangerously high blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Restricting fluid intake can lead to dehydration, keeping the room warm is not directly related to preventing autonomic dysreflexia, and limiting high-fiber foods is not a primary intervention for this condition.

3. A client with osteoporosis is being discharged home. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid weight-bearing exercises.
• B. Take calcium supplements with meals.
• C. Limit vitamin D intake.
• D. Increase intake of caffeine-containing beverages.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Taking calcium supplements with meals is a crucial instruction for a client with osteoporosis. Calcium absorption is enhanced when taken with food, and proper calcium intake is essential for managing osteoporosis effectively by promoting bone health and density. Avoiding weight-bearing exercises (Choice A) is incorrect because these exercises help improve bone strength. Limiting vitamin D intake (Choice C) is also incorrect as vitamin D is necessary for calcium absorption. Increasing caffeine intake (Choice D) is not recommended as caffeine can interfere with calcium absorption.

4. What physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?

• A. Soft, spongy fundus.
• B. Saturating two perineal pads per hour.
• C. Pulse rate of 56 BPM.
• D. Unilateral lower leg pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A pulse rate of 56 BPM can be considered a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum. Postpartum bradycardia can occur due to increased stroke volume and decreased vascular resistance after delivery. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's vital signs and recognize that a lower pulse rate can be expected in the immediate postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a soft, spongy fundus may indicate uterine atony, saturating two perineal pads per hour is excessive bleeding, and unilateral lower leg pain could suggest deep vein thrombosis, all of which would require further assessment and intervention.

5. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed ranitidine (Zantac). Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I will take this medication at bedtime.
• B. I need to avoid smoking while taking this medication.
• C. I should take this medication with meals.
• D. This medication will help reduce stomach acid.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's statement that they should take ranitidine with meals indicates a need for further teaching. Ranitidine is typically taken at bedtime or before meals to be most effective in reducing stomach acid. Taking it with meals may not provide the optimal therapeutic effect.

Similar Questions