an 82 year old woman with no past history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms she is on no medications at this time but needs so
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Adult Medical Surgical ATI

1. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

2. Which of the following statements is true about ischemic colitis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ischemic colitis most often results from low-flow states associated with hypotension or poor perfusion. As a result, the vascular watershed areas of the colon, including the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum, are at highest risk of ischemic injury. Therefore, option B is correct as it accurately identifies the areas commonly affected by ischemic colitis.

3. What is the primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is that rivaroxaban does not require regular INR monitoring. This eliminates the need for frequent blood tests to adjust the dosage, making it more convenient for patients to manage their anticoagulant therapy.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is learning to self-administer insulin. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client learning to self-administer insulin is to rotate injection sites within the same region. This practice helps prevent lipodystrophy, which is a condition characterized by fat tissue changes due to repeated injections in the same spot, and also ensures consistent absorption of insulin throughout the body. Storing insulin in the freezer is incorrect as it can lead to denaturation of the insulin. Administering the insulin at the same site each time can cause lipodystrophy and inconsistent absorption. Shaking the vial vigorously before drawing up the insulin is also incorrect as it can lead to insulin degradation.

5. A 45-year-old woman with occasional indigestion has had episodes of chest pain and dysphagia to both solids and liquids. An upper GI series and EGD fail to disclose any structural abnormalities. What is the most appropriate initial therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of chest pain and dysphagia suggest esophageal spasm, often related to underlying gastroesophageal reflux. The initial therapy should focus on acid suppression. Proton pump inhibitors are the preferred choice to reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. If proton pump inhibitors are ineffective, other options like smooth muscle relaxants or antidepressants may be considered. A Heller myotomy is not indicated in this case as the patient does not have achalasia.

Similar Questions

A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
A 60-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A client who is receiving heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?
A client who is acutely ill has vigilant oral care included in their plan of care. What factor increases this client's risk for dental caries?
The healthcare professional is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Access More Features

ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses