ATI LPN
ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet
1. What side effect should be monitored for in a patient with chronic heart failure taking spironolactone?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in patients with heart failure. One of the potential side effects of spironolactone therapy is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, making it crucial for healthcare providers to monitor potassium levels closely. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypokalemia (low potassium levels), hyponatremia (low sodium levels), and hypernatremia (high sodium levels) are not typically associated with spironolactone use in patients with chronic heart failure.
2. When assessing a client with a chest tube connected to suction, which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
- C. No fluctuation in the water seal chamber.
- D. Steady bubbling in the suction control chamber.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Steady bubbling in the suction control chamber is the correct observation that indicates the chest tube is functioning properly. This steady bubbling signifies that the suction is actively maintaining the desired pressure level within the system, ensuring proper drainage and lung re-expansion. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber, intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber, or no fluctuation in the water seal chamber are not indicative of optimal chest tube function and may require further assessment or intervention.
3. A patient with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?
- A. With meals
- B. At bedtime
- C. Before meals
- D. After meals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is best taken before meals for optimal effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and promoting ulcer healing. Taking it before meals allows the medication to act on the proton pumps before food intake triggers acid production, thereby maximizing its therapeutic benefits. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking omeprazole with meals, at bedtime, or after meals may not align with its mechanism of action, potentially reducing its effectiveness in managing peptic ulcer disease.
4. The client is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril), and the nurse plans to educate them about its purpose. Which statement should the nurse provide?
- A. It will help you function better in the community.
- B. The medication will help you think more clearly.
- C. You will be able to cope with your symptoms.
- D. It will improve your grooming and hygiene.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clozapine (Clozaril) is an antipsychotic medication that is known to improve cognitive function and thought clarity in individuals with schizophrenia. It primarily helps in managing symptoms related to thought processes rather than focusing on community function, coping with symptoms, or grooming and hygiene.
5. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Relieve neuropathic pain
- B. Reduce inflammation
- C. Enhance opioid analgesia
- D. Suppress cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Gabapentin is primarily prescribed to relieve neuropathic pain. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the nerves, making it effective in managing conditions such as diabetic neuropathy, postherpetic neuralgia, and other forms of chronic pain originating from nerve damage.
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