Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Dry cough.
• B. Weight gain.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Hyperglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to irritation and subsequent cough. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can affect adherence to the medication regimen. Weight gain, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

2. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. She has a history of similar episodes in the past. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Ulcerative colitis
• B. Irritable bowel syndrome
• C. Celiac disease
• D. Diverticulitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The constellation of symptoms including abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding in a young woman with a history of similar episodes is highly suggestive of ulcerative colitis. This chronic inflammatory condition primarily affects the colon and rectum, leading to symptoms such as bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and urgency. The recurrent nature of her symptoms and the presence of rectal bleeding further support this diagnosis over other conditions listed, such as irritable bowel syndrome, celiac disease, or diverticulitis, which typically do not present with the same combination of symptoms and history.

3. A 32-year-old woman presents with a 10-month history of an intermittent burning sensation in the epigastrium that is sometimes related to eating. She has heard about bacteria that can cause gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. She has had no change in her weight and denies dysphagia. Her laboratory tests are normal. Which of the following would you recommend?

• A. Serum qualitative test for H. pylori
• B. Refer for endoscopy
• C. Obtain an upper GI series
• D. Treat her for H. pylori infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient presents with dyspepsia, described as an intermittent burning sensation in the epigastrium, sometimes related to eating. In individuals under 45 years without warning signs such as anemia, weight loss, or dysphagia, a serum qualitative test for H. pylori is recommended to document H. pylori infection, especially if the patient has not been previously treated. It's important to note that a serum IgG can remain positive post-eradication. If H. pylori-positive patients do not respond to treatment, an endoscopy would be the next step for evaluation. An upper GI series is less sensitive than endoscopy in detecting lesions of the upper GI tract and cannot specifically detect H. pylori. Empiric therapy for H. pylori without confirmation is not recommended.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which clinical manifestation should the healthcare provider expect to find?

• A. Hyperpigmentation of the skin.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Moon face and buffalo hump.
• D. Weight loss.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Moon face and buffalo hump. In Cushing's syndrome, excess production of corticosteroids leads to redistribution of fat, particularly in the face (moon face) and between the shoulders (buffalo hump). Hyperpigmentation of the skin is actually associated with Addison's disease, not Cushing's syndrome (choice A). Hypotension is not a typical finding in Cushing's syndrome; instead, hypertension is more commonly seen due to the effects of excess cortisol (choice B). Weight gain, rather than weight loss, is a common symptom of Cushing's syndrome due to the metabolic disturbances caused by excess cortisol (choice D).

5. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled to receive epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory result should the nurse review before administering the medication?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Creatinine clearance
• C. Hemoglobin level
• D. Serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to review the hemoglobin level before administering epoetin alfa (Epogen) to assess its effectiveness in stimulating red blood cell production. Hemoglobin level is a crucial indicator to monitor in clients with chronic renal failure receiving this medication. Choice A (Blood urea nitrogen) and Choice B (Creatinine clearance) are commonly monitored in renal failure but are not specifically relevant to assessing the effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Choice D (Serum potassium) is important to monitor due to potential imbalances in renal failure, but it is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.

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