ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. What nursing intervention can help alleviate pruritus in a client with cirrhosis?
- A. Administering antihistamines
- B. Providing a high-protein diet
- C. Applying emollients to the skin
- D. Encouraging frequent baths with hot water
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Applying emollients to the skin can help alleviate pruritus in clients with cirrhosis. Emollients help soothe and moisturize the skin, reducing the discomfort associated with itching.
2. The patient described in the preceding question has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?
- A. She is at low risk for reinfection with H. pylori
- B. A positive serum IgG indicates that eradication of H. pylori was successful
- C. The urease breath test is an ideal test to document failure of eradication
- D. Dyspepsia typically worsens with H. pylori eradication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. The serum IgG may remain positive indefinitely and cannot be used to determine failure of eradication; however, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been utilized to indicate treatment success. If available, either the stool antigen or urease breath test is ideal to document treatment failure due to their high sensitivity, specificity, and ease of performance. The relationship between dyspepsia and H. pylori is controversial, but generally, dyspepsia does not typically improve with H. pylori eradication.
3. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Tardive dyskinesia.
- B. Orthostatic hypotension.
- C. Photosensitivity.
- D. Hyperglycemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tardive dyskinesia. Haloperidol (Haldol) is an antipsychotic medication that can lead to tardive dyskinesia, a side effect characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face and body. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial to provide timely interventions and prevent further complications.
4. After undergoing rigid fixation for a mandibular fracture from a fight, what area of care should the nurse prioritize for discharge education for this client?
- A. Resumption of activities of daily living
- B. Pain control
- C. Promotion of adequate nutrition
- D. Strategies for promoting adequate nutrition
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is promoting adequate nutrition. Following rigid fixation for a mandibular fracture, the client may have limitations in jaw movement, which can affect their ability to eat properly. Prioritizing education on promoting adequate nutrition will help ensure the client's nutritional needs are met during the recovery period.
5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Dry cough.
- B. Weight gain.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Hyperglycemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to irritation and subsequent cough. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can affect adherence to the medication regimen. Weight gain, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.
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