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1. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed calcium acetate. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Treat hyperkalemia
- B. Reduce phosphate levels
- C. Lower blood pressure
- D. Increase hemoglobin levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of prescribing calcium acetate to a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is to reduce phosphate levels. Calcium acetate binds to dietary phosphate, preventing its absorption and helping to manage hyperphosphatemia commonly seen in CKD patients.
2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran (Pradaxa). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food to improve absorption.
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- C. Take the medication at the same time each day.
- D. Increase your intake of high-potassium foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the client's teaching regarding dabigatran (Pradaxa) is to take the medication at the same time each day. This ensures a consistent blood level and effectiveness of the medication, which is crucial in managing atrial fibrillation and preventing complications. It helps maintain a steady therapeutic effect and reduces the risk of erratic drug levels in the body.
3. A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)/INR
- C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- D. Serum potassium level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT)/INR. Warfarin affects the clotting ability of the blood by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial to assess the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine if the patient is within the desired anticoagulation range to prevent either clotting issues or excessive bleeding.
4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication before bedtime.
- B. Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day.
- C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- D. Limit your fluid intake to less than 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In heart failure, fluid retention is a concern. Furosemide helps manage this by promoting diuresis. Instructing the client to report weight gain exceeding 2 pounds in a day is crucial as it can indicate fluid accumulation, prompting timely intervention to prevent worsening heart failure symptoms and complications.
5. A 40-year-old woman presents with a history of chronic constipation, bloating, and abdominal pain. She notes that the pain is relieved with defecation. She denies any weight loss, blood in her stools, or nocturnal symptoms. Physical examination and routine blood tests are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Inflammatory bowel disease
- B. Irritable bowel syndrome
- C. Celiac disease
- D. Lactose intolerance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of chronic constipation, bloating, abdominal pain relieved with defecation, absence of weight loss, blood in stools, or nocturnal symptoms, along with normal physical examination and routine blood tests, are indicative of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). IBS is a functional gastrointestinal disorder characterized by abdominal pain or discomfort and altered bowel habits in the absence of any organic cause. It is a diagnosis of exclusion made based on symptom criteria, and the provided clinical scenario aligns with the typical presentation of IBS.
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