Nursing Elites

1. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed calcium acetate. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Treat hyperkalemia
• B. Reduce phosphate levels
• C. Lower blood pressure
• D. Increase hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of prescribing calcium acetate to a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is to reduce phosphate levels. Calcium acetate binds to dietary phosphate, preventing its absorption and helping to manage hyperphosphatemia commonly seen in CKD patients.

2. A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Increase cardiac output
• B. Reduce fluid retention
• C. Decrease heart rate
• D. Lower blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, leading to increased diuresis. By reducing fluid retention, furosemide helps decrease the workload on the heart in patients with chronic heart failure. This medication does not directly increase cardiac output, decrease heart rate, or lower blood pressure as its primary action.

3. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?

• A. Report any signs of infection, such as sore throat or fever, to your healthcare provider.'
• B. Increase your intake of iodine-rich foods, such as seafood and dairy products.'
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.'
• D. You may experience weight gain and fatigue as side effects of the medication.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) can suppress bone marrow function, increasing the risk of infection, so it is important to report signs of infection promptly.

4. During an assessment, a healthcare professional suspects a client has cholecystitis. What is a common symptom of this condition?

• A. Right upper quadrant pain
• B. Left lower quadrant pain
• C. Generalized abdominal pain
• D. Epigastric pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Right upper quadrant pain is a hallmark symptom of cholecystitis, indicating inflammation of the gallbladder. The gallbladder is typically located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is characteristic of cholecystitis. This pain may be sharp or cramp-like and can be accompanied by other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and fever. Left lower quadrant pain (choice B) is more commonly associated with diverticulitis, generalized abdominal pain (choice C) can be seen in various conditions, and epigastric pain (choice D) is typically related to issues in the upper central part of the abdomen, such as gastritis or peptic ulcers, rather than cholecystitis.

5. Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should receive which instruction regarding warfarin therapy?

• A. Continue taking warfarin until the day of surgery.
• B. Stop taking warfarin three days before surgery.
• C. Switch to aspirin before surgery.
• D. Stop taking warfarin one week before surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should be instructed to stop taking warfarin around one week before the procedure. This timeframe allows for the effects of warfarin to diminish, lowering the risk of excessive bleeding during surgery. Continuing warfarin until the day of surgery (Choice A) increases the risk of bleeding complications. Stopping warfarin three days before surgery (Choice B) may not provide enough time for the anticoagulant effects to subside. Switching to aspirin before surgery (Choice C) is not recommended as a substitute for warfarin in this context.

Similar Questions