Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic with a foot ulcer. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client to promote healing of the ulcer?

• A. Apply a heating pad to the ulcer twice daily.
• B. Wear tight-fitting shoes to protect the ulcer.
• C. Keep the ulcer clean and dry.
• D. Limit walking to reduce pressure on the ulcer.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Keep the ulcer clean and dry." For clients with diabetes mellitus, it is crucial to maintain foot ulcers clean and dry to prevent infection and promote healing. Moist environments can lead to bacterial growth and delay healing. Applying a heating pad (Choice A) can increase the risk of burns and further damage the ulcer. Wearing tight-fitting shoes (Choice B) can cause friction and pressure on the ulcer, hindering the healing process. Limiting walking (Choice D) excessively can affect circulation and delay healing. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to keep the ulcer clean and dry for optimal wound care management.

2. A client's telemetry monitor indicates the sudden onset of ventricular fibrillation. Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Bounding erratic pulse.
• B. Regularly irregular pulse.
• C. Thready irregular pulse.
• D. No palpable pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by chaotic, asynchronous contractions of the ventricles, resulting in ineffective cardiac output. This leads to the absence of a palpable pulse. Nurses should be prepared to initiate immediate interventions such as defibrillation to restore normal cardiac rhythm in a client experiencing ventricular fibrillation.

3. A 35-year-old male patient presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever for the past 48 hours, preceded by new onset jaundice over the past few weeks. He states that he has had diarrhea on and off for several years but never had this investigated. A liver ultrasound is negative for gallstones or evidence of cholecystitis. His lab tests reveal total bilirubin 6.2, alkaline phosphatase 450, AST 150, ALT 120, albumin 2.6. The next diagnostic test of choice would be

• A. Liver biopsy
• B. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
• C. Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C RNA assay
• D. Colonoscopy with biopsies

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with abnormal liver function tests, suggests a biliary tract problem. Given the suspicion of obstructed bile flow and the negative liver ultrasound for gallstones, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is the next appropriate step to evaluate the biliary system and pancreatic ducts. MRCP is non-invasive and can provide detailed images for diagnosis. Liver biopsy is not the preferred initial diagnostic test in this context. Testing for hepatitis B and C would not address the current clinical scenario, and colonoscopy is not indicated for the presenting symptoms.

4. A patient with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. What should the nurse do to prepare the patient for the procedure?

• A. Have the patient void immediately before the procedure.
• B. Position the patient upright or semi-Fowler's in bed.
• C. Administer a full liquid diet.
• D. Encourage the patient to ambulate for 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct preparation for a paracentesis in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites includes having the patient void immediately before the procedure. This is important to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the paracentesis. Positioning for a paracentesis is typically upright or semi-Fowler's, not flat in bed. Administering a full liquid diet or encouraging ambulation for 30 minutes are not directly related to preparing a patient for a paracentesis procedure.

5. A client with coronary artery disease (CAD) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Total cholesterol of 180 mg/dL.
• B. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) of 200 mg/dL.
• C. Triglycerides of 150 mg/dL.
• D. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 40 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An LDL level of 200 mg/dL is significantly elevated and requires immediate intervention to reduce the risk of cardiovascular events in a client with coronary artery disease (CAD). High LDL levels contribute to the development and progression of atherosclerosis, which can lead to complications like heart attacks and strokes. Lowering LDL levels is a key goal in managing CAD and preventing further cardiovascular damage. Total cholesterol of 180 mg/dL, triglycerides of 150 mg/dL, and HDL of 40 mg/dL are within acceptable ranges and do not pose an immediate risk that necessitates urgent intervention.

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