ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic with a foot ulcer. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client to promote healing of the ulcer?
- A. Apply a heating pad to the ulcer twice daily.
- B. Wear tight-fitting shoes to protect the ulcer.
- C. Keep the ulcer clean and dry.
- D. Limit walking to reduce pressure on the ulcer.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Keep the ulcer clean and dry." For clients with diabetes mellitus, it is crucial to maintain foot ulcers clean and dry to prevent infection and promote healing. Moist environments can lead to bacterial growth and delay healing. Applying a heating pad (Choice A) can increase the risk of burns and further damage the ulcer. Wearing tight-fitting shoes (Choice B) can cause friction and pressure on the ulcer, hindering the healing process. Limiting walking (Choice D) excessively can affect circulation and delay healing. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to keep the ulcer clean and dry for optimal wound care management.
2. The mental health nurse observes that a female client with delusional disorder carries some of her belongings with her because she believes that others are trying to steal them. Which nursing action will promote trust?
- A. Explain that distrust is related to feeling anxious.
- B. Initiate short, frequent contacts with the client.
- C. Explain that these beliefs are related to her illness.
- D. Offer to keep the belongings at the nurse's desk.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Initiating short, frequent contacts with the client is the most appropriate action to promote trust. This approach helps build trust and rapport, addressing the client's need for security. By maintaining regular contact, the nurse can provide reassurance and support, which can help alleviate the client's anxiety related to her delusional beliefs. Choice A does not directly address the client's need for trust and security. Choice C focuses on the client's illness but does not actively address building trust. Choice D, offering to keep the belongings at the nurse's desk, may not be well-received by the client and could potentially worsen her anxiety and distrust.
3. A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and coronary artery disease (s/p coronary artery bypass graft two years ago) presents to the emergency room with fevers and left-sided abdominal pain. His physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.5°F, pulse 96, and blood pressure of 135/80. His abdomen is soft with moderate left lower quadrant tenderness. There is no rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are present. A CT scan is done which reveals inflammation around an area of the left colon. The next step in his workup/management should be
- A. Antibiotic therapy with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
- B. Referral for urgent colonoscopy
- C. Referral to a surgeon for immediate hemicolectomy
- D. Barium enema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with diverticulitis without evidence of perforation or abscess formation on CT scan. During acute infections, procedures like barium enema and colonoscopy should be avoided to prevent the risk of perforation. Urgent surgery is not indicated initially. The appropriate next step is to start antibiotic therapy aimed at gram-negative aerobes and anaerobes, such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole, which are the initial treatment of choice for diverticulitis.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Platelet count.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT).
- C. Hemoglobin level.
- D. White blood cell count.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is monitored to ensure therapeutic levels of warfarin and prevent bleeding complications.
5. When creating a care plan for a 70-year-old obese client admitted to the postsurgical unit following a colon resection, the client's age and increased body mass index put them at increased risk for which complication in the postoperative period?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Azotemia
- C. Falls
- D. Infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Infection is a significant risk in obese, elderly clients due to decreased immunity and increased healing time, making them more susceptible to postoperative infections. Proper infection prevention measures should be a priority in the care plan for this client to minimize this risk.
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