Nursing Elites

1. A 34-year-old woman presents with intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Celiac disease
• C. Lactose intolerance
• D. Crohn's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea that improve with fasting, along with a history of iron deficiency anemia, are highly suggestive of celiac disease. In celiac disease, gluten ingestion leads to mucosal damage in the small intestine, causing malabsorption of nutrients like iron, leading to anemia. The improvement of symptoms with fasting can be explained by the temporary avoidance of gluten-containing foods. Irritable bowel syndrome typically does not improve with fasting. Lactose intolerance usually presents with symptoms after dairy consumption, not with fasting. Crohn's disease typically presents with more chronic symptoms and is not commonly associated with improvement on fasting.

2. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased heart rate.
• B. Decreased pedal edema.
• C. Elevated blood pressure.
• D. Improved urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with heart failure, decreased pedal edema is a positive indicator of improved cardiac output and reduced fluid retention. Digoxin works by increasing the strength of the heart's contractions, leading to improved circulation and reduced symptoms of heart failure, such as edema. Monitoring for decreased pedal edema is essential to assess the effectiveness of digoxin therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because an increased heart rate, elevated blood pressure, and improved urine output are not specific indicators of digoxin's effectiveness in managing heart failure. Instead, the focus should be on improvements related to fluid retention and cardiac function, like decreased pedal edema.

3. A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. The cancer involves only the cervix.
• B. The cancer cells closely resemble normal cells.
• C. Further testing is necessary to determine the spread of the cancer.
• D. Determining the original site of the cervical cancer is challenging.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'The cancer involves only the cervix.' In staging, 'Tis' indicates cancer in situ, which means it is localized to the cervix and not invasive at this time. The differentiation of cancer cells is not part of clinical staging. Since the cancer is in situ, its origin is the cervix. Further testing is not required as the cancer has not spread beyond the cervix. Choice B is incorrect as the staging information provided does not relate to the resemblance of cancer cells to normal cells. Choice C is incorrect because further testing is not necessary as the cancer is localized. Choice D is incorrect because the staging information provided clearly indicates the site of origin as the cervix.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign of digoxin toxicity should the nurse teach the client to report?

• A. Increased appetite.
• B. Yellow or blurred vision.
• C. Weight gain.
• D. Nasal congestion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Yellow or blurred vision is a hallmark sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity can affect various body systems, but visual disturbances, such as yellow or blurred vision, are important signs that the client should report immediately. Other signs like increased appetite, weight gain, or nasal congestion are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Prompt reporting of visual disturbances can help prevent further complications associated with digoxin toxicity.

5. A patient with an anxiety disorder is prescribed alprazolam. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Increase energy levels
• B. Induce sedation
• C. Elevate mood
• D. Reduce anxiety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine that primarily works by reducing anxiety. It achieves this by enhancing the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter GABA in the brain, which leads to a calming effect on the individual. Therefore, the primary action of alprazolam is to decrease anxiety levels rather than increase energy, induce sedation, or elevate mood.

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