Nursing Elites

1. A 34-year-old woman presents with intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Celiac disease
• C. Lactose intolerance
• D. Crohn's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea that improve with fasting, along with a history of iron deficiency anemia, are highly suggestive of celiac disease. In celiac disease, gluten ingestion leads to mucosal damage in the small intestine, causing malabsorption of nutrients like iron, leading to anemia. The improvement of symptoms with fasting can be explained by the temporary avoidance of gluten-containing foods. Irritable bowel syndrome typically does not improve with fasting. Lactose intolerance usually presents with symptoms after dairy consumption, not with fasting. Crohn's disease typically presents with more chronic symptoms and is not commonly associated with improvement on fasting.

2. The mother of a 9-month-old who was diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to the first birthday party of a friend's child the following day. What response should the nurse provide this mother?

• A. The child can be around other children but should wear a mask at all times.
• B. The child will no longer be contagious, no need to take any further precautions.
• C. Make sure there are no children under the age of 6 months around the infected child.
• D. Do not expose other children. RSV is very contagious even without direct oral contact.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is to advise the mother not to expose other children to the infected child. RSV is highly contagious, and transmission can occur even without direct oral contact. It is crucial to prevent the spread of the virus to protect other children from getting infected.

3. The client has received 250 ml of 0.9% normal saline through the IV line in the last hour. The client is now tachypneic and has a pulse rate of 120 beats/minute, with a pulse volume of +4. In addition to reporting the assessment findings to the healthcare provider, what action should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the IV and apply pressure at the site.
• B. Decrease the saline to a keep-open rate.
• C. Increase the rate of the current IV solution.
• D. Change the IV fluid to 0.45% normal saline at the same rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid overload with tachypnea and a high pulse rate. Decreasing the saline to a keep-open rate is appropriate to prevent further fluid volume excess. This action allows for IV access to be maintained while reducing the fluid administered, helping to manage the symptoms of fluid overload.

4. When working with a client who has chronic constipation, what should be included in client teaching to promote normal bowel function?

• A. Use glycerin suppositories on a regular basis
• B. Limit physical activity in order to promote bowel peristalsis
• C. Consume high-residue, high-fiber foods
• D. Resist the urge to defecate until the urge becomes intense

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Consuming high-residue, high-fiber foods is essential in promoting normal bowel function and preventing constipation. These foods help add bulk to the stool, making it easier to pass and preventing constipation. Glycerin suppositories may provide short-term relief but are not a long-term solution for chronic constipation. Physical activity actually helps promote bowel peristalsis, so limiting it would not be beneficial. Delaying defecation can lead to stool hardening and worsening constipation.

5. The patient described in the preceding questions has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?

• A. She is at high risk for reinfection with H. pylori.
• B. A positive serum IgG indicates that eradication of H. pylori was unsuccessful.
• C. The urease breath test is an ideal test to document failure of eradication.
• D. Dyspepsia usually improves with H. pylori eradication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. A positive serum IgG may persist indefinitely and cannot alone determine the failure of eradication. However, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been used to confirm treatment success. The urease breath test is recommended to assess the failure of eradication as it can detect the presence of H. pylori in the stomach, indicating treatment failure if positive.

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