Nursing Elites

1. A 45-year-old woman with occasional indigestion has had episodes of chest pain and dysphagia to both solids and liquids. An upper GI series and EGD fail to disclose any structural abnormalities. What is the most appropriate initial therapy?

• A. Sucralfate
• B. Proton pump inhibitor
• C. Prokinetic agent
• D. Benzodiazepine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of chest pain and dysphagia suggest esophageal spasm, often related to underlying gastroesophageal reflux. The initial therapy should focus on acid suppression. Proton pump inhibitors are the preferred choice to reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. If proton pump inhibitors are ineffective, other options like smooth muscle relaxants or antidepressants may be considered. A Heller myotomy is not indicated in this case as the patient does not have achalasia.

2. A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 a.m. and the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours.
• B. Vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 gm in 250 ml D5W, IV over 90 minutes q12 hours.
• C. Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg PO daily.
• D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subq q24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with urinary sepsis, administering Piperacillin/tazobactam first is crucial as it is an antibiotic that directly targets the infection. Addressing the infection promptly is essential to prevent its progression and complications. Vancomycin, Pantoprazole, and Enoxaparin are important medications for the patient's overall treatment plan, but in this scenario, the antibiotic should take precedence due to the urgency of managing the sepsis.

3. What is the primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. No need for regular INR monitoring
• B. Lower risk of bleeding
• C. Fewer dietary restrictions
• D. Longer half-life

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is that rivaroxaban does not require regular INR monitoring. This eliminates the need for frequent blood tests to adjust the dosage, making it more convenient for patients to manage their anticoagulant therapy.

4. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Reduce inflammation
• B. Relieve bronchospasm
• C. Suppress cough
• D. Thin respiratory secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that primarily works to relieve bronchospasm by dilating the airways and improving airflow in patients with COPD. It does not have a significant effect on reducing inflammation, suppressing cough, or thinning respiratory secretions.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which clinical manifestation should the healthcare provider expect to find?

• A. Hyperpigmentation of the skin.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Moon face and buffalo hump.
• D. Weight loss.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Moon face and buffalo hump. In Cushing's syndrome, excess production of corticosteroids leads to redistribution of fat, particularly in the face (moon face) and between the shoulders (buffalo hump). Hyperpigmentation of the skin is actually associated with Addison's disease, not Cushing's syndrome (choice A). Hypotension is not a typical finding in Cushing's syndrome; instead, hypertension is more commonly seen due to the effects of excess cortisol (choice B). Weight gain, rather than weight loss, is a common symptom of Cushing's syndrome due to the metabolic disturbances caused by excess cortisol (choice D).

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