ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows a normal common bile duct but dilated intrahepatic bile ducts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Based on the symptoms of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of a normal common bile duct but dilated intrahepatic bile ducts, the most likely diagnosis is primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with different imaging findings, often showing strictures and beading of the bile ducts. Gallstones typically cause obstruction in the biliary system, leading to different symptoms and imaging findings. Pancreatic cancer would present with different clinical features and imaging characteristics.
2. A patient with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. What is the most important instruction to give to the patient?
- A. Use the inhaler only during asthma attacks.
- B. Rinse the mouth after using the inhaler.
- C. Take a double dose if symptoms worsen.
- D. Avoid using a spacer with the inhaler.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction to give to a patient using a corticosteroid inhaler is to rinse the mouth after each use. This is crucial to prevent the development of oral thrush, a common side effect of corticosteroid inhalers. Failure to rinse the mouth can lead to the overgrowth of yeast in the mouth, causing oral thrush, which can be uncomfortable and require additional treatment. Therefore, reminding patients to rinse their mouth after using the inhaler is essential in preventing this potential complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Using the inhaler only during asthma attacks may lead to uncontrolled asthma symptoms. Taking a double dose without healthcare provider instruction can result in overdose or side effects. Avoiding a spacer with the inhaler can reduce the effectiveness of delivering the medication to the lungs.
3. A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. What dietary advice should the nurse provide?
- A. Increase intake of caffeine.
- B. Maintain a consistent salt intake.
- C. Avoid dairy products.
- D. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain a consistent salt intake. Patients prescribed lithium should maintain a consistent salt intake to help stabilize lithium levels. Fluctuations in salt intake can affect the levels of lithium in the body, potentially leading to toxicity or reduced effectiveness of the medication. It is important for patients to be consistent with their salt intake and to avoid sudden increases or decreases. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of caffeine is not recommended as it can interfere with the effects of lithium. Avoiding dairy products is not necessary unless there are specific intolerances or interactions with other medications. While green leafy vegetables are generally healthy, there is no specific recommendation to increase their intake in relation to lithium therapy.
4. The mother of a 9-month-old who was diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to the first birthday party of a friend's child the following day. What response should the nurse provide this mother?
- A. The child can be around other children but should wear a mask at all times.
- B. The child will no longer be contagious, no need to take any further precautions.
- C. Make sure there are no children under the age of 6 months around the infected child.
- D. Do not expose other children. RSV is very contagious even without direct oral contact.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is to advise the mother not to expose other children to the infected child. RSV is highly contagious, and transmission can occur even without direct oral contact. It is crucial to prevent the spread of the virus to protect other children from getting infected.
5. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?
- A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
- B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
- C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
- D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents its absorption. By taking RenaGel with meals, the binding of phosphorus helps to reduce the phosphorus load absorbed from food, thus aiding in the management of hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD.
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