Nursing Elites

1. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows a normal common bile duct but dilated intrahepatic bile ducts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
• B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Pancreatic cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Based on the symptoms of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of a normal common bile duct but dilated intrahepatic bile ducts, the most likely diagnosis is primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with different imaging findings, often showing strictures and beading of the bile ducts. Gallstones typically cause obstruction in the biliary system, leading to different symptoms and imaging findings. Pancreatic cancer would present with different clinical features and imaging characteristics.

2. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus presents with confusion, sweating, and palpitations. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Administer 10 units of insulin.
• C. Give the client a high-protein snack.
• D. Measure the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for a client presenting with confusion, sweating, and palpitations, suggestive of hypoglycemia, is to check the client's blood glucose level. This step helps to confirm if the symptoms are due to low blood sugar levels and guides appropriate interventions. Administering insulin without knowing the current blood glucose level can be dangerous and is not recommended as the initial step. Offering a high-protein snack may be necessary after confirming hypoglycemia, but checking the blood glucose level takes precedence. Measuring blood pressure is not the priority in this situation; addressing hypoglycemia is the immediate concern.

3. A 40-year-old woman presents with a history of chronic constipation, bloating, and abdominal pain. She notes that the pain is relieved with defecation. She denies any weight loss, blood in her stools, or nocturnal symptoms. Physical examination and routine blood tests are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Inflammatory bowel disease
• B. Irritable bowel syndrome
• C. Celiac disease
• D. Lactose intolerance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of chronic constipation, bloating, abdominal pain relieved with defecation, absence of weight loss, blood in stools, or nocturnal symptoms, along with normal physical examination and routine blood tests, are indicative of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). IBS is a functional gastrointestinal disorder characterized by abdominal pain or discomfort and altered bowel habits in the absence of any organic cause. It is a diagnosis of exclusion made based on symptom criteria, and the provided clinical scenario aligns with the typical presentation of IBS.

4. A patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which is reflected by changes in the PTT. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the patient's blood is within the desired therapeutic range and prevents complications related to clotting or bleeding. Prothrombin time (PT) primarily assesses the extrinsic pathway and is not as sensitive to heparin therapy. Bleeding time and platelet count are not specific tests for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.

5. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Reduce inflammation
• B. Relieve bronchospasm
• C. Suppress cough
• D. Thin respiratory secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that primarily works to relieve bronchospasm by dilating the airways and improving airflow in patients with COPD. It does not have a significant effect on reducing inflammation, suppressing cough, or thinning respiratory secretions.

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