ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows a normal common bile duct but dilated intrahepatic bile ducts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Based on the symptoms of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of a normal common bile duct but dilated intrahepatic bile ducts, the most likely diagnosis is primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with different imaging findings, often showing strictures and beading of the bile ducts. Gallstones typically cause obstruction in the biliary system, leading to different symptoms and imaging findings. Pancreatic cancer would present with different clinical features and imaging characteristics.
2. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the medication as needed for pain relief.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec) is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This is important for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication in treating peptic ulcer disease. Choice A ('Take the medication with food') is incorrect because omeprazole should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B ('Take the medication at bedtime') is incorrect as it does not align with the optimal timing for omeprazole administration. Choice D ('Take the medication as needed for pain relief') is incorrect because omeprazole is not typically used for immediate pain relief but rather for long-term management of peptic ulcer disease.
3. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. Laboratory tests reveal low TSH and high free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Hypothyroidism
- B. Hyperthyroidism
- C. Thyroiditis
- D. Thyroid cancer
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The combination of low TSH and high free T4 levels is characteristic of hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is associated with symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and diarrhea, contrasting with the typical presentation of hypothyroidism. Therefore, in this case, the most likely diagnosis is hyperthyroidism.
4. The nurse has completed the admission assessment of a client and has determined that the client's body mass index (BMI) is 33.5 kg/m2. What health promotion advice should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. It would be very helpful if you could integrate more physical activity into your routine.
- B. You're considered to be overweight, so you should be diligent about maintaining a healthy diet.
- C. You might want to consider some of the surgical options that have been developed for treating obesity.
- D. With your permission, I'd like you to refer to a support group for individuals who live with severe obesity.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increasing physical activity is a key component of managing BMI and overall health.
5. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is experiencing severe shortness of breath and has pink, frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer morphine sulfate.
- B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
- C. Initiate continuous ECG monitoring.
- D. Prepare the client for intubation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing severe shortness of breath and pink, frothy sputum, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion, ease breathing, and enhance oxygenation by reducing venous return and decreasing preload on the heart. It is crucial to address the client's respiratory distress promptly before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice A) may be appropriate later to relieve anxiety and reduce the work of breathing, but positioning is the priority. Continuous ECG monitoring (choice C) and preparing for intubation (choice D) are important but secondary to addressing the respiratory distress and optimizing oxygenation.
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