Nursing Elites

1. When should surgical correction of hypospadias typically occur for a newborn infant as advised by the nurse?

• A. Repair should be done within one month to prevent bladder infections.
• B. Repairs should typically be done before the child is potty-trained.
• C. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.
• D. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Surgical repair of hypospadias is recommended to be performed before the child is potty-trained to prevent complications. Early correction helps in achieving better outcomes and reduces the risk of issues related to urination and development of the genitalia.

2. A patient with severe pain is prescribed morphine sulfate. What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hypertension
• C. Respiratory depression
• D. Increased urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed morphine sulfate, the most critical side effect for the nurse to monitor is respiratory depression. Morphine can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to inadequate ventilation and potentially life-threatening consequences. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status closely is essential to promptly identify and manage any signs of respiratory depression.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this condition?

• A. Administer calcium gluconate.
• B. Encourage a diet high in potassium.
• C. Provide potassium supplements.
• D. Restrict sodium intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering calcium gluconate is the appropriate intervention for a client with hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate helps stabilize the heart by counteracting the effects of high potassium levels and reducing the risk of cardiac complications in individuals with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging a diet high in potassium or providing potassium supplements would exacerbate hyperkalemia. Restricting sodium intake is not directly related to addressing hyperkalemia.

4. A patient with epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin. What is the primary side effect the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Gingival hyperplasia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia, or overgrowth of the gums, is a common side effect of phenytoin. Patients should maintain good oral hygiene to minimize this effect.

5. What physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?

• A. Soft, spongy fundus.
• B. Saturating two perineal pads per hour.
• C. Pulse rate of 56 BPM.
• D. Unilateral lower leg pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A pulse rate of 56 BPM can be considered a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum. Postpartum bradycardia can occur due to increased stroke volume and decreased vascular resistance after delivery. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's vital signs and recognize that a lower pulse rate can be expected in the immediate postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a soft, spongy fundus may indicate uterine atony, saturating two perineal pads per hour is excessive bleeding, and unilateral lower leg pain could suggest deep vein thrombosis, all of which would require further assessment and intervention.

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