Nursing Elites

1. When should surgical correction of hypospadias typically occur for a newborn infant as advised by the nurse?

• A. Repair should be done within one month to prevent bladder infections.
• B. Repairs should typically be done before the child is potty-trained.
• C. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.
• D. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Surgical repair of hypospadias is recommended to be performed before the child is potty-trained to prevent complications. Early correction helps in achieving better outcomes and reduces the risk of issues related to urination and development of the genitalia.

2. A 75-year-old patient is admitted for pancreatitis. Which tool would be the most appropriate for the nurse to use during the admission assessment?

• A. Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10)
• B. Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, Revised (CIWA-Ar)
• C. Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G)
• D. Mini-Mental State Examination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate tool for the nurse to use during the admission assessment of a 75-year-old patient admitted for pancreatitis is the Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G). Since alcohol abuse is a common factor associated with pancreatitis, screening for alcohol use is crucial. The SMAST-G is a validated short-form alcoholism screening instrument tailored for older adults. If the patient screens positively on the SMAST-G, then the CIWA-Ar would be useful for further assessment. The Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10) provides information on substance use in general, not specific to alcohol. The Mini-Mental State Examination is used to assess cognitive function, not alcohol abuse.

3. During a home visit, the nurse should evaluate the adequacy of a client's COPD treatment by assessing for which primary symptom?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Unilateral diminished breath sounds
• D. Edema of the ankles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for dyspnea is crucial when evaluating COPD treatment effectiveness as it is a primary symptom of the condition. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a common and distressing symptom in COPD patients. Monitoring the severity of dyspnea can provide valuable insights into the client's response to treatment and disease progression.

4. A patient is being cared for after bariatric surgery, and the healthcare provider is assessing for hemorrhage. What is a sign of hemorrhage?

• A. Increase in blood pressure
• B. Frank red bleeding from the surgical site
• C. Clear drainage from the surgical wound
• D. Decrease in heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frank red bleeding from the surgical site is a significant sign of hemorrhage that warrants immediate attention. It indicates active bleeding that needs to be addressed promptly to prevent further complications.

5. A primipara at 38-weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery for a biophysical profile (BPP). The nurse should prepare the client for what procedures?

• A. Chorionic villus sampling under ultrasound.
• B. Amniocentesis and fetal monitoring.
• C. Ultrasonography and nonstress test.
• D. Oxytocin challenge test and fetal heart rate monitoring.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A biophysical profile (BPP) is a prenatal test that assesses the well-being of the fetus. It typically includes ultrasonography to evaluate fetal movements, muscle tone, breathing movements, and amniotic fluid volume. Additionally, a nonstress test is performed to monitor the fetal heart rate in response to its movements. These tests help in determining the overall health and viability of the fetus, making them essential components of prenatal care for assessing fetal well-being.

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