a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperglycemia which laboratory result requires the most immediate intervention
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperglycemia. Which laboratory result requires the most immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is critically low and can cause cardiac arrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hypokalemia is a life-threatening condition that needs prompt correction to prevent serious complications. High serum glucose levels (choice A) are a concern in diabetes but do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to severe hypokalemia. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum bicarbonate levels (choice D) are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention.

2. After a client's neck dissection surgery resulted in damage to the superior laryngeal nerve, what area of assessment should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Damage to the superior laryngeal nerve can lead to swallowing difficulties due to impaired laryngeal function. As a result, assessing the client's swallowing ability is crucial to prevent aspiration and ensure proper nutrition and hydration.

3. A 48-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Laboratory tests reveal high TSH and low free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The scenario describes a classic presentation of hypothyroidism, supported by the laboratory findings of high TSH and low free T4 levels. In hypothyroidism, the body's thyroid hormone levels are inadequate, leading to symptoms like fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. High TSH is a compensatory mechanism by the body to increase thyroid hormone production, which is deficient, resulting in a negative feedback loop. Therefore, the correct answer is hypothyroidism.

4. Why is morphine administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine is administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) primarily to reduce cardiac workload. By reducing preload and afterload, morphine helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle. This decrease in workload on the heart can alleviate symptoms and reduce strain on the heart muscle during an MI. Choices A and B are incorrect because the primary goal of administering morphine in this context is not pain relief or anxiety reduction. Choice D is incorrect as morphine does not aim to increase respiratory rate but rather to address the cardiac workload.

5. A 62-year-old male client with a history of coronary artery disease complains that his heart is 'racing' and he often feels dizzy. His blood pressure is 110/60, and he uses portable oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. Based on the rhythm shown, which prescription should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering IV adenosine is the appropriate intervention for a client with symptomatic tachycardia to restore normal sinus rhythm. Adenosine is a medication used to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) by interrupting the reentry pathways through the AV node and restoring normal sinus rhythm. It is a rapid-acting medication given as a rapid IV push followed by a saline flush. The dose is typically administered in a healthcare setting where cardiac monitoring is available due to its potential to cause transient asystole.

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