Nursing Elites

1. Which assessment finding indicates a client's readiness to leave the nursing unit for a bronchoscopy?

• A. Client denies allergies to contrast media.
• B. Skin prep to insertion site completed.
• C. On-call sedation administered.
• D. Oxygen at 2 L/minute via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering on-call sedation is crucial before a bronchoscopy to ensure the client is comfortable and adequately prepared for the procedure. Sedation helps reduce anxiety, discomfort, and ensures the client remains still during the bronchoscopy, enabling the healthcare provider to perform the procedure effectively.

2. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

• A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
• B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
• C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
• D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods to prevent its absorption, which is why it should be taken with meals. By taking RenaGel with meals, it can effectively bind with phosphorus from food, reducing the amount of phosphorus absorbed by the body, thus helping to manage hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because RenaGel's primary action is to bind with phosphorus in foods, not related to preventing indigestion, promoting stomach emptying, or buffering hydrochloric acid.

3. A client admitted with acute diverticulitis has experienced a sudden increase in temperature and reports a sudden onset of exquisite abdominal tenderness. The nurse's rapid assessment reveals that the client's abdomen is uncharacteristically rigid on palpation. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Administer a Fleet enema as prescribed and remain with the client
• B. Contact the primary care provider promptly and report these signs of perforation
• C. Position the client supine and insert an NG tube
• D. Page the primary provider and report that the client may be obstructed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with acute diverticulitis experiencing sudden increase in temperature, exquisite abdominal tenderness, and uncharacteristic abdominal rigidity, these signs suggest a possible perforation. The nurse should promptly contact the primary care provider to report these signs, as perforation requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Platelet count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT).
• C. Hemoglobin level.
• D. White blood cell count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is monitored to ensure therapeutic levels of warfarin and prevent bleeding complications.

5. A client who is acutely ill has vigilant oral care included in their plan of care. What factor increases this client's risk for dental caries?

• A. Hormonal changes induced by the stress response leading to an acidic oral environment
• B. Systemic infections commonly affecting the teeth
• C. Intravenous hydration lacking fluoride
• D. Inadequate nutrition and reduced saliva production contributing to cavities

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inadequate nutrition and decreased saliva production can lead to a conducive environment for the development of dental caries. Without proper nutrition and sufficient saliva, the protective mechanisms against cavities are compromised, making the individual more susceptible to tooth decay.

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