Nursing Elites

1. A client with Parkinson's disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should be included to address the client's bradykinesia?

• A. Encourage daily walking.
• B. Provide thickened liquids to prevent aspiration.
• C. Offer small, frequent meals.
• D. Teach the client to use adaptive utensils.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging daily walking is an essential intervention to address bradykinesia in clients with Parkinson's disease. Walking helps improve mobility, flexibility, and coordination, which can help manage the slowness of movement associated with bradykinesia. Providing thickened liquids (Choice B) is more relevant for dysphagia, not bradykinesia. Offering small, frequent meals (Choice C) is related to managing dysphagia and nutritional needs but does not specifically address bradykinesia. Teaching the client to use adaptive utensils (Choice D) is more focused on addressing fine motor skills and grip strength, which are not the primary concerns in bradykinesia.

2. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Fruity breath odor.
• B. Blood glucose of 450 mg/dL.
• C. Deep, rapid respirations.
• D. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul breathing). This is a sign of severe acidosis commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and requires immediate intervention. Kussmaul breathing helps to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by blowing off carbon dioxide. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration and potential respiratory failure. Fruity breath odor (Choice A) is a classic sign of DKA but does not require immediate intervention. While a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL (Choice B) is high, it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most critical finding that requires immediate intervention in this scenario.

3. Why is morphine administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI)?

• A. To reduce pain.
• B. To decrease anxiety.
• C. To reduce cardiac workload.
• D. To increase respiratory rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine is administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) primarily to reduce cardiac workload. By reducing preload and afterload, morphine helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle. This decrease in workload on the heart can alleviate symptoms and reduce strain on the heart muscle during an MI. Choices A and B are incorrect because the primary goal of administering morphine in this context is not pain relief or anxiety reduction. Choice D is incorrect as morphine does not aim to increase respiratory rate but rather to address the cardiac workload.

4. A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. What dietary advice should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase intake of caffeine.
• B. Maintain a consistent salt intake.
• C. Avoid dairy products.
• D. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain a consistent salt intake. Patients prescribed lithium should maintain a consistent salt intake to help stabilize lithium levels. Fluctuations in salt intake can affect the levels of lithium in the body, potentially leading to toxicity or reduced effectiveness of the medication. It is important for patients to be consistent with their salt intake and to avoid sudden increases or decreases. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of caffeine is not recommended as it can interfere with the effects of lithium. Avoiding dairy products is not necessary unless there are specific intolerances or interactions with other medications. While green leafy vegetables are generally healthy, there is no specific recommendation to increase their intake in relation to lithium therapy.

5. A client with left-sided heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which position should the nurse place the client in to relieve these symptoms?

• A. High Fowler's position.
• B. Supine position.
• C. Trendelenburg position.
• D. Sims' position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the client in High Fowler's position is beneficial for individuals with left-sided heart failure experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. This position helps to reduce venous return, decrease preload, and enhance respiratory function, thereby relieving the symptoms mentioned. Choice B, the supine position, is not recommended as it may exacerbate dyspnea and orthopnea by increasing preload. Choice C, the Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves the feet being positioned higher than the head, which is not suitable for heart failure patients. Choice D, the Sims' position, is a lateral position used for rectal examination and is not indicated for relieving dyspnea and orthopnea in heart failure.

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