a 65 year old man frequently regurgitates food several hours after eating and experiences chest pain and dysphagia to both liquids and solids he has l
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Nursing Elites

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Adult Medical Surgical ATI

1. What is the best therapy for a 65-year-old man with symptoms of regurgitation, chest pain, dysphagia, weight loss, dilated esophagus, and an absent gastric air bubble on CXR?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation and radiologic findings are consistent with achalasia. The absence of a mass on upper endoscopy and CT scan helps rule out secondary causes. Achalasia is best managed with endoscopic balloon dilatation or myotomy. Proton-pump inhibitors are not effective for achalasia. Sucralfate is not a primary treatment for achalasia. Esophageal resection is only considered if malignancy develops. Patients with achalasia may experience chest pain and weight loss due to food accumulation in the dilated esophagus. Endoscopic balloon dilatation is a safe and effective treatment option for improving symptoms in achalasia patients.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed erythropoietin (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improved hemoglobin levels. Erythropoietin (Epogen) stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels in clients with chronic renal failure. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy in managing anemia associated with chronic renal failure. While increased urine output, decreased blood pressure, and stable potassium levels are important parameters to monitor in clients with renal failure, they are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy.

3. A client who has been receiving treatment for depression with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) reports experiencing decreased libido. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client reports experiencing decreased libido while taking SSRIs, it is important for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider to discuss potential medication adjustments. This side effect can significantly impact a client's quality of life, and addressing it promptly by involving the healthcare provider is crucial in providing holistic care. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the issue of decreased libido caused by SSRIs. Simply waiting for improvement over time, altering the administration of medication with food, or increasing exercise are not appropriate strategies for managing this specific side effect.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for clients receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent thromboembolism. It is essential to monitor INR levels regularly when on warfarin therapy to ensure that the blood's ability to clot is within the desired range to prevent both clotting and excessive bleeding.

5. A patient with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole is best taken before meals for optimal effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and promoting ulcer healing. Taking it before meals allows the medication to act on the proton pumps before food intake triggers acid production, thereby maximizing its therapeutic benefits. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking omeprazole with meals, at bedtime, or after meals may not align with its mechanism of action, potentially reducing its effectiveness in managing peptic ulcer disease.

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