a 65 year old man frequently regurgitates food several hours after eating and experiences chest pain and dysphagia to both liquids and solids he has l
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Nursing Elites

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Adult Medical Surgical ATI

1. What is the best therapy for a 65-year-old man with symptoms of regurgitation, chest pain, dysphagia, weight loss, dilated esophagus, and an absent gastric air bubble on CXR?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation and radiologic findings are consistent with achalasia. The absence of a mass on upper endoscopy and CT scan helps rule out secondary causes. Achalasia is best managed with endoscopic balloon dilatation or myotomy. Proton-pump inhibitors are not effective for achalasia. Sucralfate is not a primary treatment for achalasia. Esophageal resection is only considered if malignancy develops. Patients with achalasia may experience chest pain and weight loss due to food accumulation in the dilated esophagus. Endoscopic balloon dilatation is a safe and effective treatment option for improving symptoms in achalasia patients.

2. The nurse is planning care for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which intervention should the nurse include to reduce the risk of bleeding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering vitamin K as prescribed can help reduce the risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis by promoting clotting factor production. Cirrhosis often leads to impaired liver function, affecting the synthesis of clotting factors. Vitamin K supplementation helps in the production of these essential clotting factors, thus reducing the risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important for overall care but not directly related to reducing the risk of bleeding in cirrhosis. Limiting dietary protein intake (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases of cirrhosis but does not directly address the risk of bleeding. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice D) is beneficial for various aspects of health but does not specifically target the risk of bleeding in cirrhosis.

3. A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, leading to increased diuresis. By reducing fluid retention, furosemide helps decrease the workload on the heart in patients with chronic heart failure. This medication does not directly increase cardiac output, decrease heart rate, or lower blood pressure as its primary action.

4. The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience muscle weakness, including in the muscles used for coughing. This diminished cough effort can lead to ineffective airway clearance, increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Therefore, the most likely cause for the nursing diagnosis 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' in a client with myasthenia gravis is the diminished cough effort due to muscle weakness.

5. A 55-year-old man presents with jaundice, pruritus, and dark urine. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation of jaundice, pruritus, dark urine, elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase, along with imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are characteristic of primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary biliary cirrhosis is an autoimmune liver disease that leads to destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts, causing cholestasis and liver damage. This condition typically presents in middle-aged women but can also affect men, as seen in this case.

Similar Questions

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