Nursing Elites

1. A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer regular insulin intravenously.
• B. Give oral hypoglycemic agents.
• C. Administer sodium bicarbonate.
• D. Provide a high-calorie diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing action for a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to administer regular insulin intravenously. Insulin helps to lower blood glucose levels and correct acidosis, which are critical in managing DKA. Administering oral hypoglycemic agents is not appropriate in the acute setting of DKA as they may not work quickly enough compared to intravenous insulin. While sodium bicarbonate may be used to correct acidosis, insulin administration is the priority to address both hyperglycemia and acidosis simultaneously. Providing a high-calorie diet is not suitable initially in DKA management; the main focus is on stabilizing the patient's condition through insulin therapy and fluid/electrolyte correction.

2. The community mental health nurse is planning to visit four clients with schizophrenia today. Which client should the nurse see first?

• A. The mother who took her children from school because aliens were after them.
• B. The young man who has a history of substance abuse and no telephone.
• C. The newly diagnosed client who needs to be evaluated for medication compliance.
• D. The young woman who believes she is to blame for her recent miscarriage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The mother who took her children from school due to delusions of aliens poses a significant risk to her children and herself. This situation requires immediate attention to ensure the safety and well-being of all involved. Choice B is concerning due to the history of substance abuse, but the immediate risk to life and safety as in Choice A takes precedence. Choice C, although important, does not present an immediate danger as the delusional belief of aliens. Choice D, while emotionally distressing, does not pose an immediate threat as the situation described in Choice A.

3. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

• A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
• B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
• C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
• D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods to prevent its absorption, which is why it should be taken with meals. By taking RenaGel with meals, it can effectively bind with phosphorus from food, reducing the amount of phosphorus absorbed by the body, thus helping to manage hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because RenaGel's primary action is to bind with phosphorus in foods, not related to preventing indigestion, promoting stomach emptying, or buffering hydrochloric acid.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula.
• B. Redness at the site of the AV fistula.
• C. Client's complaint of pain at the AV fistula site.
• D. Swelling of the hand on the side of the AV fistula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a chronic kidney disease who has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis, the absence of a bruit (a humming sound) or thrill (vibratory sensation) over the AV fistula indicates a potential occlusion. This finding suggests inadequate blood flow through the AV fistula, which is a critical issue requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as thrombosis or clot formation. Reporting this absence of bruit or thrill promptly to the healthcare provider is essential to ensure timely assessment and management to maintain vascular access for hemodialysis.

5. Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a patient with renal failure?

• A. To prevent fluid overload
• B. To reduce nitrogenous waste
• C. To maintain electrolyte balance
• D. To prevent hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-protein diet is crucial for patients with renal failure to reduce the generation of nitrogenous waste products like urea and creatinine, which the compromised kidneys struggle to eliminate effectively. By limiting protein intake, the production of these waste products is decreased, lessening the burden on the kidneys and helping to manage the progression of renal failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a low-protein diet primarily aims to reduce the workload on the kidneys by decreasing the production of nitrogenous waste, not to prevent fluid overload, maintain electrolyte balance, or prevent hyperglycemia.

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