ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client with long-standing obesity has been prescribed phentermine/topiramate-ER. What statement by the client suggests that further health education is necessary?
- A. I'm so relieved to start this medication. I really don't like having to exercise or change what I eat.
- B. It's hard to believe that there are actually medications that can treat obesity.
- C. I'm a bit nervous to start this medication because I know I'll need blood tests sometimes.
- D. I'm going to have to do some rearranging of my finances to make sure I can afford this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A suggests the need for further health education as the client expresses a reluctance to exercise or change dietary habits, indicating a lack of understanding about the importance of lifestyle modifications in conjunction with medication for effective weight management. It is important for the client to comprehend that a holistic approach, including lifestyle changes, is crucial for successful obesity treatment and long-term health benefits.
2. Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a patient with renal failure?
- A. To prevent fluid overload
- B. To reduce nitrogenous waste
- C. To maintain electrolyte balance
- D. To prevent hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low-protein diet is crucial for patients with renal failure to reduce the generation of nitrogenous waste products like urea and creatinine, which the compromised kidneys struggle to eliminate effectively. By limiting protein intake, the production of these waste products is decreased, lessening the burden on the kidneys and helping to manage the progression of renal failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a low-protein diet primarily aims to reduce the workload on the kidneys by decreasing the production of nitrogenous waste, not to prevent fluid overload, maintain electrolyte balance, or prevent hyperglycemia.
3. A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer regular insulin intravenously.
- B. Give oral hypoglycemic agents.
- C. Administer sodium bicarbonate.
- D. Provide a high-calorie diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing action for a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to administer regular insulin intravenously. Insulin helps to lower blood glucose levels and correct acidosis, which are critical in managing DKA. Administering oral hypoglycemic agents is not appropriate in the acute setting of DKA as they may not work quickly enough compared to intravenous insulin. While sodium bicarbonate may be used to correct acidosis, insulin administration is the priority to address both hyperglycemia and acidosis simultaneously. Providing a high-calorie diet is not suitable initially in DKA management; the main focus is on stabilizing the patient's condition through insulin therapy and fluid/electrolyte correction.
4. A 65-year-old female client arrives in the emergency department with shortness of breath and chest pain. The nurse accidentally administers 10 mg of morphine sulfate instead of the prescribed 4 mg. Later, the client's respiratory rate is 10 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation is 98%, and she states her pain has subsided. What is the legal status of the nurse?
- A. The nurse is guilty of negligence and will be sued.
- B. The client would not be able to prove malpractice in court.
- C. The nurse is protected by the Good Samaritan Act.
- D. The healthcare provider should have given the morphine sulfate dose.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because, in this scenario, the client would not be able to prove malpractice in court. Despite the nurse administering a higher dose of morphine than prescribed, the client's respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, and pain relief indicate that no harm resulted from the error. Therefore, the client would not have legal grounds to pursue a malpractice case against the nurse.
5. A 40-year-old man presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. He has a history of Crohn's disease. Laboratory tests reveal low hemoglobin and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Ulcerative colitis
- B. Irritable bowel syndrome
- C. Celiac disease
- D. Crohn's disease flare
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The symptoms of abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss, along with the history of Crohn's disease, and the laboratory findings of low hemoglobin and elevated ESR, strongly suggest a Crohn's disease flare. These clinical manifestations are classic features of a flare-up in a patient with a known history of Crohn's disease.
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