Nursing Elites

1. A client with long-standing obesity has been prescribed phentermine/topiramate-ER. What statement by the client suggests that further health education is necessary?

• A. I'm so relieved to start this medication. I really don't like having to exercise or change what I eat.
• B. It's hard to believe that there are actually medications that can treat obesity.
• C. I'm a bit nervous to start this medication because I know I'll need blood tests sometimes.
• D. I'm going to have to do some rearranging of my finances to make sure I can afford this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A suggests the need for further health education as the client expresses a reluctance to exercise or change dietary habits, indicating a lack of understanding about the importance of lifestyle modifications in conjunction with medication for effective weight management. It is important for the client to comprehend that a holistic approach, including lifestyle changes, is crucial for successful obesity treatment and long-term health benefits.

2. The patient described in the preceding questions has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?

• A. She is at high risk for reinfection with H. pylori.
• B. A positive serum IgG indicates that eradication of H. pylori was unsuccessful.
• C. The urease breath test is an ideal test to document failure of eradication.
• D. Dyspepsia usually improves with H. pylori eradication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. A positive serum IgG may persist indefinitely and cannot alone determine the failure of eradication. However, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been used to confirm treatment success. The urease breath test is recommended to assess the failure of eradication as it can detect the presence of H. pylori in the stomach, indicating treatment failure if positive.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has just undergone a thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Hoarse voice.
• B. Difficulty swallowing.
• C. Numbness and tingling around the mouth.
• D. Sore throat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Numbness and tingling around the mouth can indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication after thyroidectomy. Hypocalcemia can occur due to inadvertent injury or removal of the parathyroid glands during the thyroidectomy, leading to decreased calcium levels. As a result, the client may experience symptoms such as numbness, tingling, muscle cramps, or spasms. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent severe complications like tetany or seizures. Therefore, the healthcare provider should address numbness and tingling around the mouth immediately to prevent further deterioration of calcium levels and potential serious outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with immediate post-thyroidectomy complications and can be addressed after ensuring the client's calcium levels are stable.

4. The client has received 250 ml of 0.9% normal saline through the IV line in the last hour. The client is now tachypneic and has a pulse rate of 120 beats/minute, with a pulse volume of +4. In addition to reporting the assessment findings to the healthcare provider, what action should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the IV and apply pressure at the site.
• B. Decrease the saline to a keep-open rate.
• C. Increase the rate of the current IV solution.
• D. Change the IV fluid to 0.45% normal saline at the same rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid overload with tachypnea and a high pulse rate. Decreasing the saline to a keep-open rate is appropriate to prevent further fluid volume excess. This action allows for IV access to be maintained while reducing the fluid administered, helping to manage the symptoms of fluid overload.

5. A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 a.m. and the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours.
• B. Vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 gm in 250 ml D5W, IV over 90 minutes q12 hours.
• C. Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg PO daily.
• D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subq q24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with urinary sepsis, administering Piperacillin/tazobactam first is crucial as it is an antibiotic that directly targets the infection. Addressing the infection promptly is essential to prevent its progression and complications. Vancomycin, Pantoprazole, and Enoxaparin are important medications for the patient's overall treatment plan, but in this scenario, the antibiotic should take precedence due to the urgency of managing the sepsis.

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