a patient with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate what instruction should the nurse give regarding the administration of this medication
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1. What instruction should the nurse give regarding the administration of alendronate to a patient with osteoporosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for administering alendronate to a patient with osteoporosis is to take the medication with a full glass of water first thing in the morning. It is important for the patient to remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to prevent esophageal irritation. Taking alendronate with milk, lying down after intake, or taking it before bedtime can reduce the medication's effectiveness or increase the risk of side effects.

2. The client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high, a condition known as hyperkalemia, which can lead to severe cardiac complications like arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Immediate medical intervention is necessary to lower potassium levels to prevent life-threatening outcomes in clients undergoing hemodialysis.

3. A 60-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, pruritus, jaundice, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels are classic features of primary biliary cirrhosis, an autoimmune liver disease. Hepatitis C typically presents with different symptoms and findings, such as specific viral markers. Hemochromatosis and Wilson's disease involve iron overload and copper accumulation, respectively, leading to distinct clinical and laboratory findings, which do not match the presentation described in this case.

4. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

5. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. She has a history of similar episodes in the past. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The constellation of symptoms including abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding in a young woman with a history of similar episodes is highly suggestive of ulcerative colitis. This chronic inflammatory condition primarily affects the colon and rectum, leading to symptoms such as bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and urgency. The recurrent nature of her symptoms and the presence of rectal bleeding further support this diagnosis over other conditions listed, such as irritable bowel syndrome, celiac disease, or diverticulitis, which typically do not present with the same combination of symptoms and history.

Similar Questions

A 70-year-old woman presents with fatigue, anorexia, and weight loss. She has noticed darkening of her skin, particularly in sun-exposed areas. Laboratory tests reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 40-year-old woman presents with a history of chronic constipation, bloating, and abdominal pain. She notes that the pain is relieved with defecation. She denies any weight loss, blood in her stools, or nocturnal symptoms. Physical examination and routine blood tests are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
An elderly male client reports to the clinic nurse that he is experiencing increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. He reports a weak urine flow and frequent dribbling after voiding. Which nursing action should be implemented?
A client with osteoporosis is being discharged home. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
A 60-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with the complaint of right knee pain for the past week. His right knee and calf are warm and edematous. He has a history of diabetes and arthritis. Which neurological assessment action should the nurse perform for this client?

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