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ATI Adult Medical Surgical
1. A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Increase thyroid hormone production
- B. Suppress thyroid hormone production
- C. Enhance iodine absorption
- D. Stimulate the thyroid gland
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism by suppressing the production of thyroid hormones. It works by inhibiting the enzyme responsible for the synthesis of thyroid hormones, thereby reducing their levels in the body. This helps to alleviate the symptoms of hyperthyroidism and restore thyroid hormone levels to normal range.
2. The client has received 250 ml of 0.9% normal saline through the IV line in the last hour. The client is now tachypneic and has a pulse rate of 120 beats/minute, with a pulse volume of +4. In addition to reporting the assessment findings to the healthcare provider, what action should the nurse implement?
- A. Discontinue the IV and apply pressure at the site.
- B. Decrease the saline to a keep-open rate.
- C. Increase the rate of the current IV solution.
- D. Change the IV fluid to 0.45% normal saline at the same rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid overload with tachypnea and a high pulse rate. Decreasing the saline to a keep-open rate is appropriate to prevent further fluid volume excess. This action allows for IV access to be maintained while reducing the fluid administered, helping to manage the symptoms of fluid overload.
3. A client with cirrhosis of the liver is being cared for by the healthcare team. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the client has developed hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. Asterixis.
- B. Jaundice.
- C. Ascites.
- D. Splenomegaly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Asterixis, also known as flapping tremor, is a characteristic sign of hepatic encephalopathy, a severe complication of liver cirrhosis. Hepatic encephalopathy results from the liver's inability to detoxify substances in the body, leading to neurologic manifestations such as changes in mental status, confusion, and asterixis.
4. When covering another nurse's assignment during a lunch break, based on the status report provided, which client should the charge nurse check first?
- A. The client admitted yesterday with diabetic ketoacidosis whose blood glucose level is now 195 mg/dl.
- B. The client with an ileal conduit created two days ago with a scant amount of blood in the drainage pouch.
- C. The client post-triple coronary bypass four days ago who has serosanguinous drainage in the chest tube.
- D. The client with a pneumothorax secondary to a gunshot wound with a current pulse oximeter reading of 90%.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client with a pneumothorax and a pulse oximeter reading of 90% indicates potential respiratory compromise, requiring immediate attention to prevent further deterioration.
5. A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C. Diabetes insipidus
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The combination of symptoms including fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, along with laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria strongly suggest type 1 diabetes mellitus. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, there is a deficiency of insulin leading to high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia) and the breakdown of fats producing ketones, causing ketonuria. Type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents differently and is more common in older individuals. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, distinct from the provided clinical scenario. Hyperthyroidism may present with some overlapping symptoms like fatigue, but it does not account for the specific laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria seen in this case.
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