Nursing Elites

1. A client in labor states, 'I think my water just broke!' The nurse notes that the umbilical cord is on the perineum. What action should the nurse perform first?

• A. Administer oxygen via face mask.
• B. Notify the operating room team.
• C. Place the client in Trendelenburg.
• D. Administer a fluid bolus of 500 ml.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client in Trendelenburg position. This position helps alleviate pressure on the umbilical cord, preventing compression and ensuring continued blood flow to the fetus. Administering oxygen, notifying the operating room team, or administering a fluid bolus are not the initial priority actions in a cord prolapse situation.

2. Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a patient with renal failure?

• A. To prevent fluid overload
• B. To reduce nitrogenous waste
• C. To maintain electrolyte balance
• D. To prevent hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-protein diet is crucial for patients with renal failure to reduce the generation of nitrogenous waste products like urea and creatinine, which the compromised kidneys struggle to eliminate effectively. By limiting protein intake, the production of these waste products is decreased, lessening the burden on the kidneys and helping to manage the progression of renal failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a low-protein diet primarily aims to reduce the workload on the kidneys by decreasing the production of nitrogenous waste, not to prevent fluid overload, maintain electrolyte balance, or prevent hyperglycemia.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. INR of 2.5.
• B. PTT of 45 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• D. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for clients receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent thromboembolism. It is essential to monitor INR levels regularly when on warfarin therapy to ensure that the blood's ability to clot is within the desired range to prevent both clotting and excessive bleeding.

4. A patient with an anxiety disorder is prescribed alprazolam. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Increase energy levels
• B. Induce sedation
• C. Elevate mood
• D. Reduce anxiety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine that primarily works by reducing anxiety. It achieves this by enhancing the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter GABA in the brain, which leads to a calming effect on the individual. Therefore, the primary action of alprazolam is to decrease anxiety levels rather than increase energy, induce sedation, or elevate mood.

5. What is the best therapy for a 65-year-old man with symptoms of regurgitation, chest pain, dysphagia, weight loss, dilated esophagus, and an absent gastric air bubble on CXR?

• A. Proton-pump inhibitor
• B. Endoscopic balloon dilatation
• C. Sucralfate
• D. Esophageal resection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation and radiologic findings are consistent with achalasia. The absence of a mass on upper endoscopy and CT scan helps rule out secondary causes. Achalasia is best managed with endoscopic balloon dilatation or myotomy. Proton-pump inhibitors are not effective for achalasia. Sucralfate is not a primary treatment for achalasia. Esophageal resection is only considered if malignancy develops. Patients with achalasia may experience chest pain and weight loss due to food accumulation in the dilated esophagus. Endoscopic balloon dilatation is a safe and effective treatment option for improving symptoms in achalasia patients.

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