Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Red man syndrome.
• B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• C. Mild itching at the IV site.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Red man syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications such as anaphylaxis. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding immediately to ensure prompt treatment and prevent serious adverse effects.

2. A client with myelogenous leukemia is receiving an autologous bone marrow transplantation (BMT). What is the priority intervention that the nurse should implement when the bone marrow is repopulating?

• A. Administer sargramostim (Leukine, Prokine).
• B. Infuse PRBC and platelet transfusions.
• C. Give parenteral prophylactic antibiotics.
• D. Maintain a protective isolation environment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Maintaining a protective isolation environment is crucial during the repopulation of bone marrow post-transplant to reduce the risk of infections. The client's immune system is compromised during this period, making them highly susceptible to infections. By implementing protective isolation measures, the nurse can help prevent exposure to pathogens, safeguarding the client's health and supporting the success of the transplantation.

3. A patient with glaucoma is prescribed timolol eye drops. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Reduce intraocular pressure
• B. Dilate the pupils
• C. Constrict the pupils
• D. Enhance tear production

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Timolol eye drops are prescribed to reduce intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma. By decreasing the pressure within the eye, timolol helps prevent damage to the optic nerve, which is crucial in managing glaucoma and preserving vision. Dilating or constricting the pupils or enhancing tear production are not the primary actions of timolol eye drops.

4. When a client expresses, 'I don't know how I will go on' while discussing feelings related to a recent loss, the nurse remains silent. What is the most likely reason for the nurse's behavior?

• A. The nurse is indicating disapproval of the statement.
• B. The nurse is showing respect for the client's loss.
• C. Silence is mirroring the client's sadness.
• D. Silence enables the client to contemplate what was expressed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In therapeutic communication, silence can offer the client an opportunity to process their emotions and thoughts. By remaining silent, the nurse provides a space for the client to reflect on their own words, facilitating deeper exploration and understanding of their feelings.

5. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.

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