ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. The client is receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?
- A. Red man syndrome.
- B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- C. Mild itching at the IV site.
- D. Nausea and vomiting.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Red man syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications such as anaphylaxis. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding immediately to ensure prompt treatment and prevent serious adverse effects.
2. A 60-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Hepatitis C
- B. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- C. Hemochromatosis
- D. Wilson's disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, pruritus, jaundice, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels are classic features of primary biliary cirrhosis, an autoimmune liver disease. Hepatitis C typically presents with different symptoms and findings, such as specific viral markers. Hemochromatosis and Wilson's disease involve iron overload and copper accumulation, respectively, leading to distinct clinical and laboratory findings, which do not match the presentation described in this case.
3. A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Increase cardiac output
- B. Reduce fluid retention
- C. Decrease heart rate
- D. Lower blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Carvedilol, a beta-blocker, is primarily prescribed in patients with chronic heart failure to decrease heart rate and reduce the workload on the heart. By lowering the heart rate, carvedilol helps the heart function more efficiently and improves symptoms in patients with heart failure.
4. Which of the following statements is true about ischemic colitis?
- A. Typically requires colonic resection
- B. Affects the watershed areas of the colon, namely, the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum
- C. Is only seen in the elderly
- D. Requires colonoscopic intervention
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ischemic colitis most often results from low-flow states associated with hypotension or poor perfusion. As a result, the vascular watershed areas of the colon, including the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum, are at highest risk of ischemic injury. Therefore, option B is correct as it accurately identifies the areas commonly affected by ischemic colitis.
5. A client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing severe pain. Which medication is likely to be prescribed?
- A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- B. Ibuprofen (Advil)
- C. Methotrexate (Rheumatrex)
- D. Prednisone (Deltasone)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Methotrexate is commonly prescribed for rheumatoid arthritis to reduce inflammation and slow disease progression. It is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that helps control symptoms and prevent joint damage in individuals with rheumatoid arthritis. While acetaminophen and ibuprofen are used for pain relief, they are not typically prescribed to address the underlying inflammation and disease progression associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Prednisone may be used for short-term symptom relief or during disease flares, but it is not a first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis.
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