ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client with hepatic encephalopathy exhibits confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigid extremities. Based on these clinical findings, what stage of hepatic encephalopathy should the nurse document?
- A. Stage 1
- B. Stage 2
- C. Stage 3
- D. Stage 4
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Stage 3 hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigidity of extremities. These symptoms indicate advanced manifestations of hepatic encephalopathy, requiring prompt intervention and monitoring to prevent further neurological deterioration.
2. Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a patient with renal failure?
- A. To prevent fluid overload
- B. To reduce nitrogenous waste
- C. To maintain electrolyte balance
- D. To prevent hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low-protein diet is crucial for patients with renal failure to reduce the generation of nitrogenous waste products like urea and creatinine, which the compromised kidneys struggle to eliminate effectively. By limiting protein intake, the production of these waste products is decreased, lessening the burden on the kidneys and helping to manage the progression of renal failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a low-protein diet primarily aims to reduce the workload on the kidneys by decreasing the production of nitrogenous waste, not to prevent fluid overload, maintain electrolyte balance, or prevent hyperglycemia.
3. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L. What intervention can the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?
- A. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) orally.
- B. Erythropoietin (Epogen) intravenously.
- C. Kayexalate retention enema.
- D. Azathioprine (Imuran) orally.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute renal failure with high serum potassium levels, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe a Kayexalate retention enema. Kayexalate is a medication used to lower elevated potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion through the gastrointestinal tract, thus aiding in the management of hyperkalemia in clients with renal failure.
4. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. What is an important side effect for the healthcare provider to monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Weight gain
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known to cause significant weight gain and metabolic syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor patients for these side effects to prevent complications and provide appropriate interventions.
5. A client's health history is suggestive of inflammatory bowel disease. Which of the following would suggest Crohn disease, rather than ulcerative colitis, as the cause of the client's signs and symptoms?
- A. A pattern of distinct exacerbations and remissions
- B. Severe diarrhea
- C. An absence of blood in stool
- D. Involvement of the rectal mucosa
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the context of inflammatory bowel disease, the absence of blood in stool is more indicative of Crohn disease. Crohn disease typically presents with non-bloody stools, while ulcerative colitis often involves bloody stools due to continuous mucosal inflammation confined to the colon and rectum.
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