Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client with cholecystitis. Which type of diet should the healthcare provider recommend?

• A. High-fiber, low-fat diet
• B. Low-fiber, high-protein diet
• C. Low-fat, low-cholesterol diet
• D. High-protein, high-fat diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cholecystitis, a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet is recommended to manage symptoms and reduce inflammation by reducing the workload on the gallbladder. This diet helps prevent gallbladder attacks and complications.

2. When covering another nurse's assignment during a lunch break, based on the status report provided, which client should the charge nurse check first?

• A. The client admitted yesterday with diabetic ketoacidosis whose blood glucose level is now 195 mg/dl.
• B. The client with an ileal conduit created two days ago with a scant amount of blood in the drainage pouch.
• C. The client post-triple coronary bypass four days ago who has serosanguinous drainage in the chest tube.
• D. The client with a pneumothorax secondary to a gunshot wound with a current pulse oximeter reading of 90%.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client with a pneumothorax and a pulse oximeter reading of 90% indicates potential respiratory compromise, requiring immediate attention to prevent further deterioration.

3. A patient with severe anemia is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Stimulate white blood cell production
• B. Increase platelet count
• C. Promote red blood cell production
• D. Enhance clotting factor production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythropoietin is a hormone that primarily stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. By increasing red blood cell production, erythropoietin helps to improve oxygen delivery to tissues, which is essential in managing anemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin specifically targets red blood cell production and does not have a direct effect on white blood cells, platelets, or clotting factors.

4. The preceptor is orienting a new graduate nurse to the critical care unit. The preceptor asks the new graduate to state symptoms that most likely indicate the beginning of a shock state in a critically ill client. What findings should the new graduate nurse identify?

• A. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils.
• B. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis.
• C. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds.
• D. Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output are early indicators of shock. In a critically ill client, these findings suggest a decrease in tissue perfusion. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial to prevent the progression of shock and its complications.

5. In which situation is it most important for the registered nurse (RN) working on a medical unit to provide direct supervision?

• A. A graduate nurse needs to access a client's implanted port to start an infusion of Ringer's Lactate.
• B. A postpartum nurse pulled to the unit needs to start a transfusion of packed red blood cells.
• C. A practical nurse is preparing to assist the healthcare provider with a lumbar puncture at the bedside.
• D. An unlicensed assistive personnel is preparing to weigh an obese bedfast client using a bed scale.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Direct supervision is essential when a complex task, such as accessing an implanted port, is being performed by a less experienced healthcare provider, in this case, a graduate nurse. This oversight ensures patient safety and proper execution of the procedure, especially when it is the nurse's first time performing such a task.

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