Nursing Elites

1. What physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?

• A. Soft, spongy fundus.
• B. Saturating two perineal pads per hour.
• C. Pulse rate of 56 BPM.
• D. Unilateral lower leg pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A pulse rate of 56 BPM can be considered a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum. Postpartum bradycardia can occur due to increased stroke volume and decreased vascular resistance after delivery. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's vital signs and recognize that a lower pulse rate can be expected in the immediate postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a soft, spongy fundus may indicate uterine atony, saturating two perineal pads per hour is excessive bleeding, and unilateral lower leg pain could suggest deep vein thrombosis, all of which would require further assessment and intervention.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Dry cough.
• B. Weight gain.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Hyperglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to irritation and subsequent cough. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can affect adherence to the medication regimen. Weight gain, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

3. A client with chronic pain is prescribed a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Apply the patch to a clean, dry, and hairless area of the skin.
• B. Use a heating pad over the patch to enhance absorption.
• C. Change the patch daily to maintain effectiveness.
• D. Place the patch on the same site with each application.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for applying a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch is to place it on a clean, dry, and hairless area of the skin. This ensures proper adhesion of the patch and optimal absorption of the medication. Using a heating pad over the patch is contraindicated as it can increase drug absorption and lead to overdose. Changing the patch daily is necessary for some medications, but fentanyl patches are usually changed every 72 hours to maintain a steady blood level of the medication. Placing the patch on the same site with each application can lead to skin irritation, uneven drug absorption, and should be avoided to allow the skin to recover between applications.

4. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is experiencing severe shortness of breath and has pink, frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
• C. Initiate continuous ECG monitoring.
• D. Prepare the client for intubation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing severe shortness of breath and pink, frothy sputum, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion, ease breathing, and enhance oxygenation by reducing venous return and decreasing preload on the heart. It is crucial to address the client's respiratory distress promptly before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice A) may be appropriate later to relieve anxiety and reduce the work of breathing, but positioning is the priority. Continuous ECG monitoring (choice C) and preparing for intubation (choice D) are important but secondary to addressing the respiratory distress and optimizing oxygenation.

5. When assessing a male client who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs), the nurse notes that the infusion was started 30 minutes ago, and 50 ml of blood is left to be infused. The client's vital signs are within normal limits. He reports feeling 'out of breath' but denies any other complaints. What action should the nurse take at this time?

• A. Administer a PRN prescription for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
• B. Start the normal saline attached to the Y-tubing at the same rate.
• C. Decrease the intravenous flow rate of the PRBC transfusion.
• D. Ask the respiratory therapist to administer PRN albuterol (Ventolin).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing symptoms of shortness of breath, which could indicate fluid overload from the PRBC transfusion. By decreasing the intravenous flow rate of the transfusion, the nurse can slow down the rate of blood being infused, potentially alleviating the symptoms of fluid overload and shortness of breath. This intervention can help prevent further complications and promote the client's comfort and safety.

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