what physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum
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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet

1. What physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A pulse rate of 56 BPM can be considered a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum. Postpartum bradycardia can occur due to increased stroke volume and decreased vascular resistance after delivery. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's vital signs and recognize that a lower pulse rate can be expected in the immediate postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a soft, spongy fundus may indicate uterine atony, saturating two perineal pads per hour is excessive bleeding, and unilateral lower leg pain could suggest deep vein thrombosis, all of which would require further assessment and intervention.

2. A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. What symptom should the nurse expect to find during the assessment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, especially in the voluntary muscles. Patients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience weakness in muscles that control eye movements, facial expressions, chewing, swallowing, and speaking. This weakness typically worsens with activity and improves with rest. Joint pain, loss of sensation, and severe headaches are not typical symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Therefore, the correct answer is muscle weakness (choice B) as it aligns with the characteristic symptom of myasthenia gravis.

3. Which problem in a client requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increasing sharp pain related to compartment syndrome. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition where increased pressure within a muscle compartment compromises circulation and can lead to tissue damage. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent permanent damage to muscles and nerves, including tissue necrosis and nerve injury. Choices A, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency as compartment syndrome, making them less critical for immediate intervention. Carpal tunnel syndrome, Morton's neuroma, and plantar fasciitis may cause discomfort and functional limitations but are not typically considered emergencies requiring urgent intervention like compartment syndrome.

4. What side effect should be monitored for in a patient with chronic heart failure taking spironolactone?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in patients with heart failure. One of the potential side effects of spironolactone therapy is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, making it crucial for healthcare providers to monitor potassium levels closely. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypokalemia (low potassium levels), hyponatremia (low sodium levels), and hypernatremia (high sodium levels) are not typically associated with spironolactone use in patients with chronic heart failure.

5. The client is receiving intravenous (IV) morphine for pain control. Which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute indicates severe respiratory depression, a life-threatening side effect of opioid therapy. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring and managing respiratory status are critical in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Drowsiness, itching, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not as immediately life-threatening as severe respiratory depression.

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