Nursing Elites

1. What physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?

• A. Soft, spongy fundus.
• B. Saturating two perineal pads per hour.
• C. Pulse rate of 56 BPM.
• D. Unilateral lower leg pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A pulse rate of 56 BPM can be considered a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum. Postpartum bradycardia can occur due to increased stroke volume and decreased vascular resistance after delivery. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's vital signs and recognize that a lower pulse rate can be expected in the immediate postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a soft, spongy fundus may indicate uterine atony, saturating two perineal pads per hour is excessive bleeding, and unilateral lower leg pain could suggest deep vein thrombosis, all of which would require further assessment and intervention.

2. The client has acute pancreatitis. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority?

• A. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's serum amylase and lipase levels.
• C. Encourage oral intake of clear liquids.
• D. Assess the client's bowel sounds every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication as prescribed is the highest priority when caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis is often associated with severe abdominal pain, and alleviating this pain is crucial for the client's comfort and well-being. Pain management can also help reduce stress on the pancreas and promote recovery. Monitoring serum amylase and lipase levels, encouraging oral intake of clear liquids, and assessing bowel sounds are important interventions but addressing the client's pain takes precedence to provide immediate relief and improve outcomes.

3. A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)/INR
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. Serum potassium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT)/INR. Warfarin affects the clotting ability of the blood by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial to assess the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine if the patient is within the desired anticoagulation range to prevent either clotting issues or excessive bleeding.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Platelet count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
• D. Fibrinogen level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. These tests help assess the clotting time and the desired anticoagulant effect of the medication. Monitoring PT and INR levels is crucial to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications associated with warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice A) measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific for monitoring warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice C) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) assesses the amount of fibrinogen in the blood and is not a specific test for monitoring warfarin therapy.

5. During an admission physical assessment, the nurse is examining a newborn who is small for gestational age (SGA). Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the pediatric healthcare provider?

• A. Heel stick glucose of 65 mg/dL.
• B. Head circumference of 35 cm (14 inches).
• C. Widened, tense, bulging fontanel.
• D. High-pitched shrill cry.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A widened, tense, bulging fontanel is a critical finding in a newborn as it can indicate increased intracranial pressure. This condition requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent further complications. Monitoring fontanel status is crucial in assessing the newborn's neurological well-being and ensuring early detection of potential issues.

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