ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. What physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?
- A. Soft, spongy fundus.
- B. Saturating two perineal pads per hour.
- C. Pulse rate of 56 BPM.
- D. Unilateral lower leg pain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A pulse rate of 56 BPM can be considered a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum. Postpartum bradycardia can occur due to increased stroke volume and decreased vascular resistance after delivery. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's vital signs and recognize that a lower pulse rate can be expected in the immediate postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a soft, spongy fundus may indicate uterine atony, saturating two perineal pads per hour is excessive bleeding, and unilateral lower leg pain could suggest deep vein thrombosis, all of which would require further assessment and intervention.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent autonomic dysreflexia?
- A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
- B. Keep the client's room warm.
- C. Ensure the client's bladder is emptied regularly.
- D. Limit the client's intake of high-fiber foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To prevent autonomic dysreflexia in clients with spinal cord injuries, it is crucial to ensure the client's bladder is emptied regularly. Bladder distention is a common trigger for autonomic dysreflexia in these clients. Keeping the bladder empty helps prevent the complications associated with autonomic dysreflexia, such as dangerously high blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Restricting fluid intake can lead to dehydration, keeping the room warm is not directly related to preventing autonomic dysreflexia, and limiting high-fiber foods is not a primary intervention for this condition.
3. After undergoing rigid fixation for a mandibular fracture from a fight, what area of care should the nurse prioritize for discharge education for this client?
- A. Resumption of activities of daily living
- B. Pain control
- C. Promotion of adequate nutrition
- D. Strategies for promoting adequate nutrition
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is promoting adequate nutrition. Following rigid fixation for a mandibular fracture, the client may have limitations in jaw movement, which can affect their ability to eat properly. Prioritizing education on promoting adequate nutrition will help ensure the client's nutritional needs are met during the recovery period.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
- B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing.
- C. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
- D. Obtain a stat arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with COPD experiencing respiratory distress, the priority intervention should be to position the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and reduce the work of breathing. Administering bronchodilators and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions but positioning the client to enhance respiratory function takes precedence in this situation. Obtaining an ABG sample may provide valuable information but is not the initial priority when addressing respiratory distress.
5. For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing montelukast?
- A. Relieve acute bronchospasm
- B. Prevent asthma attacks
- C. Thin respiratory secretions
- D. Suppress cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Montelukast, a leukotriene receptor antagonist, is primarily prescribed to prevent asthma attacks. It works by reducing inflammation and bronchoconstriction in the airways, thereby helping to control asthma symptoms and prevent exacerbations.
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