ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. A client with severe anemia is being treated with a blood transfusion. Which assessment finding indicates a transfusion reaction?
- A. Elevated blood pressure.
- B. Fever and chills.
- C. Increased urine output.
- D. Bradycardia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fever and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction. These symptoms indicate that the body is having a response to the transfused blood, possibly due to incompatibility or an immune reaction. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction. Increased urine output (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic signs of a transfusion reaction. It is crucial to recognize symptoms of a transfusion reaction promptly to prevent further complications and ensure appropriate management.
2. A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer regular insulin intravenously.
- B. Give oral hypoglycemic agents.
- C. Administer sodium bicarbonate.
- D. Provide a high-calorie diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing action for a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to administer regular insulin intravenously. Insulin helps to lower blood glucose levels and correct acidosis, which are critical in managing DKA. Administering oral hypoglycemic agents is not appropriate in the acute setting of DKA as they may not work quickly enough compared to intravenous insulin. While sodium bicarbonate may be used to correct acidosis, insulin administration is the priority to address both hyperglycemia and acidosis simultaneously. Providing a high-calorie diet is not suitable initially in DKA management; the main focus is on stabilizing the patient's condition through insulin therapy and fluid/electrolyte correction.
3. A patient with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?
- A. With meals
- B. At bedtime
- C. Before meals
- D. After meals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole should be taken before meals to reduce stomach acid production and promote healing of the ulcer. Taking it before meals ensures that the medication can inhibit acid secretion when the stomach is most active in producing acid, thereby maximizing its effectiveness in treating peptic ulcer disease.
4. The client was recently diagnosed with chronic gastritis. What health practice should the nurse address when teaching the client to limit exacerbations of the disease?
- A. Perform 15 minutes of physical activity at least three times per week.
- B. Avoid taking aspirin to treat pain or fever.
- C. Take multivitamins as prescribed and eat organic foods whenever possible.
- D. Maintain a healthy body weight.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding aspirin is crucial in managing chronic gastritis as it can further irritate the stomach lining, leading to exacerbations of the condition. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase stomach acid production, potentially worsening gastritis symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should educate the client on using alternative pain or fever relief methods that are less likely to aggravate gastritis, such as acetaminophen.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving prednisone (Deltasone). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Infection
- C. Hypotension
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infection. Prednisone is an immunosuppressant medication commonly used in COPD to reduce inflammation. Due to its immunosuppressive effects, clients are at an increased risk of developing infections. Therefore, nurses should closely monitor clients receiving prednisone for signs and symptoms of infections to provide timely interventions.
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