Nursing Elites

1. A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)/INR
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. Serum potassium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT)/INR. Warfarin affects the clotting ability of the blood by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial to assess the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine if the patient is within the desired anticoagulation range to prevent either clotting issues or excessive bleeding.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What advice should the nurse give regarding insulin administration?

• A. Skip your insulin dose until you can eat.
• B. Take your insulin as prescribed, but monitor your blood glucose closely.
• C. Reduce your insulin dose by half.
• D. Only take your long-acting insulin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct advice for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing nausea and vomiting is to take insulin as prescribed but monitor blood glucose closely. It is essential to continue insulin therapy even if not eating normally to prevent complications from high blood sugar levels. Skipping insulin doses can lead to dangerous fluctuations in blood glucose levels. Reducing the insulin dose without proper guidance can also result in uncontrolled blood sugar. Taking only long-acting insulin may not provide adequate coverage for mealtime blood sugar elevation. Therefore, the best course of action is to take prescribed insulin doses while closely monitoring blood glucose levels.

3. A patient with type 1 diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine. What is the primary characteristic of this insulin?

• A. Rapid-acting
• B. Intermediate-acting
• C. Long-acting
• D. Short-acting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Insulin glargine is classified as a long-acting insulin. It is designed to provide a consistent level of insulin over approximately 24 hours, helping to keep blood glucose levels stable throughout the day. This long duration of action makes it suitable for basal insulin replacement in patients with type 1 diabetes, providing a background level of insulin to mimic the body's natural release of insulin between meals and overnight.

4. The client has just been diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?

• A. Hypertension and hyperglycemia.
• B. Hyperpigmentation and hypotension.
• C. Exophthalmos and tachycardia.
• D. Weight gain and fluid retention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperpigmentation and hypotension are classic clinical manifestations of Addison's disease due to decreased cortisol production. Hyperpigmentation occurs due to elevated levels of ACTH, leading to increased melanin synthesis. Hypotension results from aldosterone deficiency, causing sodium loss and volume depletion.

5. What is the primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. No need for regular INR monitoring
• B. Lower risk of bleeding
• C. Fewer dietary restrictions
• D. Longer half-life

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is that rivaroxaban does not require regular INR monitoring. This eliminates the need for frequent blood tests to adjust the dosage, making it more convenient for patients to manage their anticoagulant therapy.

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