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ATI Adult Medical Surgical
1. A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)/INR
- C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- D. Serum potassium level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT)/INR. Warfarin affects the clotting ability of the blood by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial to assess the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine if the patient is within the desired anticoagulation range to prevent either clotting issues or excessive bleeding.
2. When covering another nurse's assignment during a lunch break, based on the status report provided, which client should the charge nurse check first?
- A. The client admitted yesterday with diabetic ketoacidosis whose blood glucose level is now 195 mg/dl.
- B. The client with an ileal conduit created two days ago with a scant amount of blood in the drainage pouch.
- C. The client post-triple coronary bypass four days ago who has serosanguinous drainage in the chest tube.
- D. The client with a pneumothorax secondary to a gunshot wound with a current pulse oximeter reading of 90%.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client with a pneumothorax and a pulse oximeter reading of 90% indicates potential respiratory compromise, requiring immediate attention to prevent further deterioration.
3. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Stimulate white blood cell production
- B. Increase platelet count
- C. Promote red blood cell production
- D. Enhance clotting factor production
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Erythropoietin primarily stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, which helps to improve oxygen delivery to tissues. In chronic kidney disease, patients often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production by the kidneys. By administering exogenous erythropoietin, the deficient hormone is replaced, leading to an increase in red blood cell production and subsequently improving the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
4. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is taking prednisone. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hyperglycemia. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to elevated blood sugar levels as a side effect, particularly in patients with diabetes or those predisposed to developing diabetes. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial to prevent complications like diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome.
5. A 36-year-old woman complains of reflux symptoms and intermittent diarrhea. The diagnosis of gastrinoma is suspected so a fasting serum gastrin is obtained and found to be 280 pg/mL (normal <115 pg/mL). An abdominal CT is negative. What would you do now?
- A. Refer her for an exploratory laparotomy
- B. Measure serum gastrin in response to secretin infusion
- C. Treat her for H. pylori
- D. Obtain a dedicated small bowel series
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The next step after finding an elevated fasting serum gastrin level is to perform a secretin stimulation test. This test helps differentiate between gastrinoma and other causes of elevated gastrin levels, such as proton-pump inhibitor therapy or H2 antagonists. In gastrinoma, the serum gastrin level should further increase after secretin infusion, while in other conditions, the levels would not significantly rise. Exploratory laparotomy would be premature without confirming the diagnosis. Treating for H. pylori is not indicated as the diagnosis of gastrinoma is under consideration and not Helicobacter pylori infection. A dedicated small bowel series is not the next appropriate step in this scenario.
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