Nursing Elites

1. A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)/INR
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. Serum potassium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT)/INR. Warfarin affects the clotting ability of the blood by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial to assess the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine if the patient is within the desired anticoagulation range to prevent either clotting issues or excessive bleeding.

2. When should surgical correction of hypospadias typically occur for a newborn infant as advised by the nurse?

• A. Repair should be done within one month to prevent bladder infections.
• B. Repairs should typically be done before the child is potty-trained.
• C. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.
• D. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Surgical repair of hypospadias is recommended to be performed before the child is potty-trained to prevent complications. Early correction helps in achieving better outcomes and reduces the risk of issues related to urination and development of the genitalia.

3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum amylase.
• B. Serum sodium.
• C. Serum calcium.
• D. Serum potassium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, serum amylase is a crucial laboratory value to monitor closely. Elevated levels of serum amylase are a key indicator of pancreatic inflammation and can help confirm the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Therefore, monitoring serum amylase levels is essential for assessing the progression and severity of the condition in a client with acute pancreatitis.

4. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?

• A. Report any signs of infection, such as sore throat or fever, to your healthcare provider.'
• B. Increase your intake of iodine-rich foods, such as seafood and dairy products.'
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.'
• D. You may experience weight gain and fatigue as side effects of the medication.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) can suppress bone marrow function, increasing the risk of infection, so it is important to report signs of infection promptly.

5. A 35-year-old man presents with difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and regurgitation of undigested food. A barium swallow shows a 'bird beak' appearance of the lower esophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Esophageal cancer
• B. Achalasia
• C. Peptic stricture
• D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The 'bird beak' appearance on a barium swallow is characteristic of achalasia, a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax properly. This leads to difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and regurgitation of undigested food, which are hallmark symptoms of achalasia.

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