ATI LPN
ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet
1. Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should receive which instruction regarding warfarin therapy?
- A. Continue taking warfarin until the day of surgery.
- B. Stop taking warfarin three days before surgery.
- C. Switch to aspirin before surgery.
- D. Stop taking warfarin one week before surgery.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should be instructed to stop taking warfarin around one week before the procedure. This timeframe allows for the effects of warfarin to diminish, lowering the risk of excessive bleeding during surgery. Continuing warfarin until the day of surgery (Choice A) increases the risk of bleeding complications. Stopping warfarin three days before surgery (Choice B) may not provide enough time for the anticoagulant effects to subside. Switching to aspirin before surgery (Choice C) is not recommended as a substitute for warfarin in this context.
2. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C. Diabetes insipidus
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.
3. Which assessment finding indicates a client's readiness to leave the nursing unit for a bronchoscopy?
- A. Client denies allergies to contrast media.
- B. Skin prep to insertion site completed.
- C. On-call sedation administered.
- D. Oxygen at 2 L/minute via nasal cannula.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering on-call sedation is crucial before a bronchoscopy to ensure the client is comfortable and adequately prepared for the procedure. Sedation helps reduce anxiety, discomfort, and ensures the client remains still during the bronchoscopy, enabling the healthcare provider to perform the procedure effectively.
4. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Eat a light breakfast on the day of the procedure.
- B. You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution before the procedure.
- C. Avoid all liquids for 24 hours before the procedure.
- D. You can continue taking your blood thinners until the day of the procedure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client scheduled for a colonoscopy is to drink a bowel preparation solution before the procedure. This solution helps cleanse the colon, ensuring clear visualization during the colonoscopy procedure. Choice A is incorrect because a light breakfast is usually recommended the day before the procedure, not on the day of the colonoscopy. Choice C is incorrect as it is important to stay hydrated and follow specific instructions regarding liquid intake. Choice D is incorrect as blood thinners may need to be adjusted or stopped before the colonoscopy to reduce the risk of bleeding during the procedure.
5. Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a client with hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Increased ammonia levels
- D. Electrolyte imbalance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A low-protein diet is recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia levels. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, can accumulate in the blood due to impaired liver function. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to worsening hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by cognitive and neurological disturbances. Therefore, by limiting protein intake, the production of ammonia is reduced, thereby helping to manage hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hepatic encephalopathy is not primarily related to hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, or electrolyte imbalance. The focus is on reducing ammonia levels to improve the condition.
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