Nursing Elites

1. Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should receive which instruction regarding warfarin therapy?

• A. Continue taking warfarin until the day of surgery.
• B. Stop taking warfarin three days before surgery.
• C. Switch to aspirin before surgery.
• D. Stop taking warfarin one week before surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should be instructed to stop taking warfarin around one week before the procedure. This timeframe allows for the effects of warfarin to diminish, lowering the risk of excessive bleeding during surgery. Continuing warfarin until the day of surgery (Choice A) increases the risk of bleeding complications. Stopping warfarin three days before surgery (Choice B) may not provide enough time for the anticoagulant effects to subside. Switching to aspirin before surgery (Choice C) is not recommended as a substitute for warfarin in this context.

2. A 40-year-old woman presents with a history of chronic constipation, bloating, and abdominal pain. She notes that the pain is relieved with defecation. She denies any weight loss, blood in her stools, or nocturnal symptoms. Physical examination and routine blood tests are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Inflammatory bowel disease
• B. Irritable bowel syndrome
• C. Celiac disease
• D. Lactose intolerance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of chronic constipation, bloating, abdominal pain relieved with defecation, absence of weight loss, blood in stools, or nocturnal symptoms, along with normal physical examination and routine blood tests, are indicative of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). IBS is a functional gastrointestinal disorder characterized by abdominal pain or discomfort and altered bowel habits in the absence of any organic cause. It is a diagnosis of exclusion made based on symptom criteria, and the provided clinical scenario aligns with the typical presentation of IBS.

3. A client with left-sided heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which position should the nurse place the client in to relieve these symptoms?

• A. High Fowler's position.
• B. Supine position.
• C. Trendelenburg position.
• D. Sims' position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the client in High Fowler's position is beneficial for individuals with left-sided heart failure experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. This position helps to reduce venous return, decrease preload, and enhance respiratory function, thereby relieving the symptoms mentioned. Choice B, the supine position, is not recommended as it may exacerbate dyspnea and orthopnea by increasing preload. Choice C, the Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves the feet being positioned higher than the head, which is not suitable for heart failure patients. Choice D, the Sims' position, is a lateral position used for rectal examination and is not indicated for relieving dyspnea and orthopnea in heart failure.

4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?

• A. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. Take the medication with a full meal.
• C. Increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
• D. Avoid exposure to sunlight.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the client prescribed with methotrexate is to avoid alcohol while taking this medication. Methotrexate can cause liver toxicity, and alcohol consumption can further exacerbate this risk. It is crucial for patients to abstain from alcohol to prevent adverse effects on the liver. Therefore, instructing the client to avoid alcohol is a key component of safe medication use and management of rheumatoid arthritis.

5. A 50-year-old man presents with fatigue, arthralgia, and darkening of the skin. Laboratory tests reveal elevated liver enzymes and high serum ferritin levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Wilson's disease
• B. Hemochromatosis
• C. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
• D. Autoimmune hepatitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, arthralgia, and skin darkening, along with elevated liver enzymes and high serum ferritin levels, are characteristic of hemochromatosis, a condition characterized by iron overload. In hemochromatosis, excess iron is deposited in various organs, including the liver, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, joint pain, and skin pigmentation changes. The elevated liver enzymes and high serum ferritin levels seen in this patient further support the diagnosis of hemochromatosis.

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