a patient is scheduled for an elective surgery and is taking warfarin what instruction should the nurse provide regarding the warfarin therapy
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet

1. Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should receive which instruction regarding warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should be instructed to stop taking warfarin around one week before the procedure. This timeframe allows for the effects of warfarin to diminish, lowering the risk of excessive bleeding during surgery. Continuing warfarin until the day of surgery (Choice A) increases the risk of bleeding complications. Stopping warfarin three days before surgery (Choice B) may not provide enough time for the anticoagulant effects to subside. Switching to aspirin before surgery (Choice C) is not recommended as a substitute for warfarin in this context.

2. A patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients on warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K because vitamin K can interfere with the anticoagulant effect of the medication. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so consuming large amounts of vitamin K-rich foods may decrease the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of dairy products, limiting citrus fruits, or avoiding high-sodium foods are not directly related to the mechanism of action of warfarin or its dietary considerations.

3. A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, along with laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria strongly suggest type 1 diabetes mellitus. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, there is a deficiency of insulin leading to high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia) and the breakdown of fats producing ketones, causing ketonuria. Type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents differently and is more common in older individuals. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, distinct from the provided clinical scenario. Hyperthyroidism may present with some overlapping symptoms like fatigue, but it does not account for the specific laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria seen in this case.

4. Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen post-CVA, continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy may exacerbate abdominal distension and hypoactive bowel sounds. This situation requires immediate assessment and reevaluation before continuing with the prescription.

5. In a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, what laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin therapy is used to stimulate red blood cell production in patients with chronic kidney disease who often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production by the kidneys. Monitoring the hemoglobin level is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy as an increase in hemoglobin indicates improved red blood cell production and better management of anemia in these patients. Serum creatinine, white blood cell count, and serum potassium levels are important parameters to monitor in CKD patients but are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for managing anemia.

Similar Questions

A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client with cholecystitis. Which type of diet should the healthcare provider recommend?
A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed ranitidine (Zantac). Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
While assessing a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse notes her deep tendon reflexes are 1+, respiratory rate is 12 breaths/minute, urinary output is 90 ml in 4 hours, and magnesium sulfate level is 9 mg/dl. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these findings?
The nurse is caring for four clients: Client A, who has emphysema and an oxygen saturation of 94%; Client B, with a postoperative hemoglobin of 8.7 g/dL; Client C, newly admitted with a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L; and Client D, scheduled for an appendectomy with a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3. What intervention should the nurse implement?
What action should the nurse take for a patient admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis exhibiting rapid, deep respirations?

Access More Features

ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses