ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. The client with newly diagnosed osteoporosis is being taught by the nurse about dietary modifications. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of high-calcium foods.
- B. Limit your intake of vitamin D-rich foods.
- C. Avoid foods high in phosphorus.
- D. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increasing the intake of high-calcium foods is essential for improving bone density and managing osteoporosis. Calcium is a key mineral necessary for bone health, and individuals with osteoporosis often need higher levels of calcium to help strengthen their bones and prevent further bone loss. Therefore, advising the client to increase their intake of high-calcium foods is the most appropriate dietary modification to support their bone health.
2. The nurse is planning care for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which intervention should the nurse include to reduce the risk of bleeding?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection.
- B. Limit the client's dietary protein intake.
- C. Administer vitamin K as prescribed.
- D. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering vitamin K as prescribed can help reduce the risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis by promoting clotting factor production. Cirrhosis often leads to impaired liver function, affecting the synthesis of clotting factors. Vitamin K supplementation helps in the production of these essential clotting factors, thus reducing the risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important for overall care but not directly related to reducing the risk of bleeding in cirrhosis. Limiting dietary protein intake (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases of cirrhosis but does not directly address the risk of bleeding. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice D) is beneficial for various aspects of health but does not specifically target the risk of bleeding in cirrhosis.
3. After performing a paracentesis on a client with ascites, 3 liters of fluid are removed. Which assessment parameter is most critical for the nurse to monitor following the procedure?
- A. Pedal pulses.
- B. Breath sounds.
- C. Gag reflex.
- D. Vital signs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Following a paracentesis where a significant amount of fluid is removed, it is crucial to monitor the client's vital signs. This helps in detecting any signs of hypovolemia, such as changes in blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate, which could indicate complications post-procedure. Monitoring the vital signs allows for prompt intervention if there are any deviations from the baseline values.
4. A client with Parkinson's disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should be included to address the client's bradykinesia?
- A. Encourage daily walking.
- B. Provide thickened liquids to prevent aspiration.
- C. Offer small, frequent meals.
- D. Teach the client to use adaptive utensils.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging daily walking is an essential intervention to address bradykinesia in clients with Parkinson's disease. Walking helps improve mobility, flexibility, and coordination, which can help manage the slowness of movement associated with bradykinesia. Providing thickened liquids (Choice B) is more relevant for dysphagia, not bradykinesia. Offering small, frequent meals (Choice C) is related to managing dysphagia and nutritional needs but does not specifically address bradykinesia. Teaching the client to use adaptive utensils (Choice D) is more focused on addressing fine motor skills and grip strength, which are not the primary concerns in bradykinesia.
5. A 45-year-old woman with occasional indigestion has had episodes of chest pain and dysphagia to both solids and liquids. An upper GI series and EGD fail to disclose any structural abnormalities. What is the most appropriate initial therapy?
- A. Sucralfate
- B. Proton pump inhibitor
- C. Prokinetic agent
- D. Benzodiazepine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of chest pain and dysphagia suggest esophageal spasm, often related to underlying gastroesophageal reflux. The initial therapy should focus on acid suppression. Proton pump inhibitors are the preferred choice to reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. If proton pump inhibitors are ineffective, other options like smooth muscle relaxants or antidepressants may be considered. A Heller myotomy is not indicated in this case as the patient does not have achalasia.
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