ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. The client with newly diagnosed osteoporosis is being taught by the nurse about dietary modifications. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of high-calcium foods.
- B. Limit your intake of vitamin D-rich foods.
- C. Avoid foods high in phosphorus.
- D. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increasing the intake of high-calcium foods is essential for improving bone density and managing osteoporosis. Calcium is a key mineral necessary for bone health, and individuals with osteoporosis often need higher levels of calcium to help strengthen their bones and prevent further bone loss. Therefore, advising the client to increase their intake of high-calcium foods is the most appropriate dietary modification to support their bone health.
2. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L. What intervention can the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?
- A. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) orally.
- B. Erythropoietin (Epogen) intravenously.
- C. Kayexalate retention enema.
- D. Azathioprine (Imuran) orally.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute renal failure with high serum potassium levels, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe a Kayexalate retention enema. Kayexalate is a medication used to lower elevated potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion through the gastrointestinal tract, thus aiding in the management of hyperkalemia in clients with renal failure.
3. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. She has a history of recurrent mouth ulcers and a perianal fistula. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Ulcerative colitis
- B. Irritable bowel syndrome
- C. Crohn's disease
- D. Diverticulitis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The combination of symptoms including recurrent mouth ulcers, perianal fistula, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss is characteristic of Crohn's disease. These extra-intestinal manifestations, along with the gastrointestinal symptoms, point towards Crohn's disease rather than ulcerative colitis, irritable bowel syndrome, or diverticulitis.
4. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is learning to self-administer insulin. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Store the insulin in the freezer.
- B. Administer the insulin at the same site each time.
- C. Rotate injection sites within the same region.
- D. Shake the vial vigorously before drawing up the insulin.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client learning to self-administer insulin is to rotate injection sites within the same region. This practice helps prevent lipodystrophy, which is a condition characterized by fat tissue changes due to repeated injections in the same spot, and also ensures consistent absorption of insulin throughout the body. Storing insulin in the freezer is incorrect as it can lead to denaturation of the insulin. Administering the insulin at the same site each time can cause lipodystrophy and inconsistent absorption. Shaking the vial vigorously before drawing up the insulin is also incorrect as it can lead to insulin degradation.
5. A 46-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis is brought in by his wife because he has been acting strangely. On examination, he is disoriented, ataxic, and has slurred speech. He is also hyperreflexic. His white blood cell count is normal. His hematocrit is 34%. Coagulation times are elevated. His ammonia level is normal. Which of the following statements regarding his management is correct?
- A. He should be treated with a low-protein diet and lactulose
- B. Lorazepam is not the drug of choice to control his behavior
- C. He should not be placed on gentamicin prophylactically to prevent the development of peritonitis
- D. If the patient complains of pain, acetaminophen should be avoided and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents should be used
Correct answer: A
Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms consistent with hepatic encephalopathy. Despite having a normal ammonia level, he should be treated with lactulose and a low-protein diet as recommended for stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. The normal ammonia level does not exclude the diagnosis, as it lacks sensitivity and specificity. Medications like lorazepam, gentamicin, and NSAIDs should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects in patients with liver disease. Acetaminophen should also be avoided in such patients.
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