Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• D. Magnesium 2.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium 140 mEq/L. An elevated sodium level can affect the effectiveness of digoxin therapy and may lead to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to report this value to the provider. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are important as well, but elevated sodium can have a more direct impact on digoxin therapy in this scenario.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which dietary recommendation should be included?

• A. Consume food high in bran fiber.
• B. Increase intake of milk products.
• C. Sweeten foods with fructose corn syrup.
• D. Increase foods high in gluten.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume food high in bran fiber. Bran fiber helps reduce IBS symptoms by promoting regular bowel movements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing milk products can exacerbate symptoms in some individuals with IBS, sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup may worsen symptoms due to its high FODMAP content, and increasing foods high in gluten could be problematic for individuals with gluten sensitivities or celiac disease, which are common in some with IBS.

3. Which of the following is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion in the body, causing hypokalemia. This is a significant concern as low potassium levels can result in cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is unlikely to occur as a result of furosemide use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not typically linked to furosemide use.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Continuous murmur.
• B. Absent peripheral pulses.
• C. Increased blood pressure.
• D. Bounding pulses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

5. A client is starting therapy with a statin medication. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Increase intake of dietary fiber.
• D. Take the medication in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to avoid consuming grapefruit juice when taking statin medication. Grapefruit juice can interfere with the metabolism of statins, leading to an increased risk of adverse effects. Taking the medication on an empty stomach (Choice A) or in the morning (Choice D) is not specifically necessary for statins. While increasing dietary fiber intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for health, it is not a specific instruction related to taking statin medication.

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